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Re: Are there contradictions in the writings of EGW?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#132625
04/12/11 01:04 PM
04/12/11 01:04 PM
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SDA Active Member 2024
5500+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2008
Posts: 6,512
Midland
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M: I do not believe the Father and Son were role playing when they met three times to discuss implementing the plan of salvation, the redemption of mankind. Knowing the outcome does not in the least lessen or eliminate the emotional and physical stress. As I assisted my wife with the birth of our 3 children, knowing the pain they were experiencing would eventually end did not in the least lessen their pain or my emotional stress.
K: Pleading 'three' times cannot be compared to birthing 'three' children, which I hope you weren't trying to say. Experiencing emotional stress knowing the full outcome would not require pleading three times. How could pleading three times not be considered role playing if they knew full well how it would turn out. And why would it be a 'struggle'? While there might be stress, if knowing how it would turn out, it wouldn't be a struggle. Interesting thought: If God did know the future as already played out, then wouldn't He also know that He would agree, then therefore would not need three times and surely it not be a 'struggle'? Or was He unable to change the three times of pleading since it had, already played out? God's knowledge of the future includes the part He played. But such knowledge does not alter what He does as things play out. Knowing the outcome does not lessen the emotional stress. Are you saying His knowledge cannot alter what He does?
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Re: Are there contradictions in the writings of EGW?
[Re: NJK Project]
#132626
04/12/11 01:31 PM
04/12/11 01:31 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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I believe the following passages provide inspired support for the view I've been advocating: Let’s exegetically see! The plan for our redemption was not an afterthought, a plan formulated after the fall of Adam. It was a revelation of "the mystery which hath been kept in silence through times eternal." Romans 16:25, R. V. It was an unfolding of the principles that from eternal ages have been the foundation of God's throne. From the beginning, God and Christ knew of the apostasy of Satan, and of the fall of man through the deceptive power of the apostate. God did not ordain that sin should exist, but He foresaw its existence, and made provision to meet the terrible emergency. So great was His love for the world, that He covenanted to give His only-begotten Son, "that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish, but have everlasting life." John 3:16. {DA 22.2} As I see it EGW bases that entire view and exposition on Rom 16:25, and manifestly not on any direct revelation, I have examined that verse and found that the word “eternal” in the R.V. is a mistranslation. The Greek word is chronos which means: “a period of time.” The word translated “eternal” is the Greek “aionios” and is in the plural form. However, as SDA know, as the same plural form of that word occurs in e.g., Jon 2:6 where Jonah says: “The earth with its bars was around me forever” when it was only 3 days, shows that it does not necessarily have to mean “eternity” or “eternal ages” So indeed, that “period of time” does not have to be “eternity”, but it can, and indeed is, as I understand it, the different periods of time in the Old Testament when God, through the implementation of the Plan of Salvation with the Sacrifices of Lambs and other Animals, was typify the Gospel. That was all made more concrete during the period of time of the Covenant with Israel. As also part of typical Gospels of Christ, Paul Gospel included the free admittance of Gentiles into God’s Israel, which Christ had revealed to him (e.g., Acts 9:15), and which Christ had also slightly hinted at during His ministry until the full time for its implementation came (cf. Acts 1:8) and in the OT, though repeatedly also hinted at (e.g., Isa 56:6) and could be done under strict probationary limitations (i.e., the joining of Gentiles to Israel), was for the most part a “hidden/veiled truth” (= “mystery”). Paul’s Gospel also included the complete non-observance, or in some parts, optional observance of OT ceremonial law and feasts. This was a source of sharp conflict with Him and even Jewish Christians. Indeed I do not see that early Jewish Christians ceased from observing feasts such as Passover. So it was to all of these Gospel truths that had been veiled/hidden during various times periods in the past, even before the time of the Old Covenant with Israel, that constituted Paul’s ‘(various) ancient time periods’. So it was not the to an ‘eternal past times, and that solely for the establishment of the Plan of Salvation’ as EGW assumed/understood, and went on to make her additional claims. Also, as it was shown earlier, EGW has the wrong (‘so much”) understanding of the “so in John 3:16 vs. the exgetically actual: ‘in like manner’, i.e., ‘just as a Serpent had been raised in the desert.’ (John 3:14, 15) The purpose and plan of grace existed from all eternity. Before the foundation of the world it was according to the determinate counsel of God that man should be created, endowed with power to do the divine will. But the defection of man, with all its consequences, was not hidden from the Omnipotent, and yet it did not deter him from carrying out his eternal purpose; for the Lord would establish his throne in righteousness. God knows the end from the beginning; "known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world." Therefore redemption was not an afterthought--a plan formulated after the fall of Adam--but an eternal purpose to be wrought out for the blessing not only of this atom of a world but for the good of all the worlds which God has created. {ST, April 25, 1892 par. 1} The bold quote above is from Acts 15:18 KJV/NKJV. However only these tow version have that statement. So it may be a manuscript addition. At best it is saying “from long ago” which does not necessarily mean “eternity.” That Acts 15;17 passage is quoting Isa 45:21 which is not saying ‘from eternity’, nor ‘from the beginning’ or ‘before the beginning of the world.’ Also EGW wrongly reads Isa 46:9 as “knows” vs. the actual word “declare”. As she uses these to make her “therefore” conclusion, it can transparently be seen that her inaccurate exegesis led her to make a wrong conclusion here. So as none of her Biblical references were based on (unequivocally) accurate Biblical understanding (including PP 63.3 which was similarly based on an inaccurate understanding of Rev 13:8), and were manifestly the basis for her non-direct, but “supposedly” Bible-derived statements, I rather defer to what was directly revealed to her in her vision in this 1SG/EW vision. In fact I believe that she was making such statement elsewhere seeking to find, though exegetically not successfully, Biblical support in order to dampen the contradicting revelation from that vision. You wrote, "As I see it . . . EGW wrongly reads . . . her inaccurate exegesis led her to make a wrong conclusion." As I see it, on the other hand, I believe she arrived at the correct conclusion. However, I do not feel compelled to "defend myself". Ellen also wrote: The law of love is the foundation of God's government, and the service of love the only service acceptable to Heaven. God has granted freedom of will to all, endowed men with capacity to appreciate His character, and therefore with ability to love Him and to choose His service. So long as created beings worshiped God they were in harmony throughout the universe. While love to God was supreme, love to others abounded. As there was no transgression of the law, which is the transcript of God's character, no note of discord jarred the celestial harmonies. {TMK 366.2}
But known unto God are all His works, and from eternal ages the covenant of grace (unmerited favor) existed in the mind of God. It is called the everlasting covenant, for the plan of salvation was not conceived after the fall of man, but it was that which was "kept in silence through times eternal, but now is manifested, and . . . made known unto all the nations . . ." (Romans 16:25, 26, R.V.). . . . {TMK 366.3}
Before Him who ruleth in the heavens the mysteries of the past and future are alike outspread, and God sees beyond the woe and darkness and ruin that sin has wrought, the outworking of His purpose of love and blessing. Though clouds and darkness are round about Him, yet righteousness and judgment are the foundation of His throne. . . . Through the plan of salvation a larger purpose is to be wrought out even than the salvation of man and the redemption of the earth. Through the revelation of the character of God in Christ, the beneficence of the divine government would be manifested before the universe, the charge of Satan refuted, the nature and result of sin made plain, and the perpetuity of the law fully demonstrated. {TMK 366.4}
Then the extermination of sin will vindicate God's love and establish His honor before a universe of beings who delight to do His will, and in whose heart is His law. {TMK 366.5} There has never been any doubt in God's mind. He has always known Jesus would succeed at saving and redeeming mankind thus magnifying the law and the character and kingdom of God.
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Re: Are there contradictions in the writings of EGW?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#132627
04/12/11 01:38 PM
04/12/11 01:38 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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M: God's knowledge of the future includes the part He played. But such knowledge does not alter what He does as things play out. Knowing the outcome does not lessen the emotional stress.
K: Are you saying His knowledge cannot alter what He does? His knowledge of the future reflects what He did (as opposed to what He will do). If His knowledge of the future motivated Him to do something different, then His knowledge of the future would be wrong and imperfect. However, God is perfect, therefore, there is no reason for Him to do anything different. To change what He did, which was right and perfect, would result in Him doing something wrong and imperfect.
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Re: Are there contradictions in the writings of EGW?
[Re: NJK Project]
#132629
04/12/11 02:22 PM
04/12/11 02:22 PM
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OP
5500+ Member
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Joined: Nov 2004
Posts: 6,154
Brazil
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So with all of these applicable internal Biblical specification, it can be concluded that the syntactical rendering of the (genitive case) “pro” in Eph 1:4 should be according to its possible, general, “Spatial” sense. The preposition pro is clearly used in a temporal sense, not in a spacial sense, for "the foundation of the world" is obviously a point in time, and not a physical place. There is no question about that.
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Re: Are there contradictions in the writings of EGW?
[Re: Rosangela]
#132631
04/12/11 02:42 PM
04/12/11 02:42 PM
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OP
5500+ Member
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Joined: Nov 2004
Posts: 6,154
Brazil
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As she uses these to make her “therefore” conclusion, it can transparently be seen that her inaccurate exegesis led her to make a wrong conclusion here. Under such a view nothing EGW wrote is reliable, and what she wrote can be even misleading.
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Re: Are there contradictions in the writings of EGW?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#132639
04/12/11 07:47 PM
04/12/11 07:47 PM
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Banned Member
Dedicated Member
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Joined: Aug 2005
Posts: 1,098
Laval, Quebec
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I believe the following passages provide inspired support for the view I've been advocating: Let’s exegetically see! The plan for our redemption was not an afterthought, a plan formulated after the fall of Adam. It was a revelation of "the mystery which hath been kept in silence through times eternal." Romans 16:25, R. V. It was an unfolding of the principles that from eternal ages have been the foundation of God's throne. From the beginning, God and Christ knew of the apostasy of Satan, and of the fall of man through the deceptive power of the apostate. God did not ordain that sin should exist, but He foresaw its existence, and made provision to meet the terrible emergency. So great was His love for the world, that He covenanted to give His only-begotten Son, "that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish, but have everlasting life." John 3:16. {DA 22.2} As I see it EGW bases that entire view and exposition on Rom 16:25, and manifestly not on any direct revelation, I have examined that verse and found that the word “eternal” in the R.V. is a mistranslation. The Greek word is chronos which means: “a period of time.” The word translated “eternal” is the Greek “aionios” and is in the plural form. However, as SDA know, as the same plural form of that word occurs in e.g., Jon 2:6 where Jonah says: “The earth with its bars was around me forever” when it was only 3 days, shows that it does not necessarily have to mean “eternity” or “eternal ages” So indeed, that “period of time” does not have to be “eternity”, but it can, and indeed is, as I understand it, the different periods of time in the Old Testament when God, through the implementation of the Plan of Salvation with the Sacrifices of Lambs and other Animals, was typify the Gospel. That was all made more concrete during the period of time of the Covenant with Israel. As also part of typical Gospels of Christ, Paul Gospel included the free admittance of Gentiles into God’s Israel, which Christ had revealed to him (e.g., Acts 9:15), and which Christ had also slightly hinted at during His ministry until the full time for its implementation came (cf. Acts 1:8) and in the OT, though repeatedly also hinted at (e.g., Isa 56:6) and could be done under strict probationary limitations (i.e., the joining of Gentiles to Israel), was for the most part a “hidden/veiled truth” (= “mystery”). Paul’s Gospel also included the complete non-observance, or in some parts, optional observance of OT ceremonial law and feasts. This was a source of sharp conflict with Him and even Jewish Christians. Indeed I do not see that early Jewish Christians ceased from observing feasts such as Passover. So it was to all of these Gospel truths that had been veiled/hidden during various times periods in the past, even before the time of the Old Covenant with Israel, that constituted Paul’s ‘(various) ancient time periods’. So it was not the to an ‘eternal past times, and that solely for the establishment of the Plan of Salvation’ as EGW assumed/understood, and went on to make her additional claims. Also, as it was shown earlier, EGW has the wrong (‘so much”) understanding of the “so in John 3:16 vs. the exgetically actual: ‘in like manner’, i.e., ‘just as a Serpent had been raised in the desert.’ (John 3:14, 15) The purpose and plan of grace existed from all eternity. Before the foundation of the world it was according to the determinate counsel of God that man should be created, endowed with power to do the divine will. But the defection of man, with all its consequences, was not hidden from the Omnipotent, and yet it did not deter him from carrying out his eternal purpose; for the Lord would establish his throne in righteousness. God knows the end from the beginning; "known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world." Therefore redemption was not an afterthought--a plan formulated after the fall of Adam--but an eternal purpose to be wrought out for the blessing not only of this atom of a world but for the good of all the worlds which God has created. {ST, April 25, 1892 par. 1} The bold quote above is from Acts 15:18 KJV/NKJV. However only these tow version have that statement. So it may be a manuscript addition. At best it is saying “from long ago” which does not necessarily mean “eternity.” That Acts 15;17 passage is quoting Isa 45:21 which is not saying ‘from eternity’, nor ‘from the beginning’ or ‘before the beginning of the world.’ Also EGW wrongly reads Isa 46:9 as “knows” vs. the actual word “declare”. As she uses these to make her “therefore” conclusion, it can transparently be seen that her inaccurate exegesis led her to make a wrong conclusion here. So as none of her Biblical references were based on (unequivocally) accurate Biblical understanding (including PP 63.3 which was similarly based on an inaccurate understanding of Rev 13:8), and were manifestly the basis for her non-direct, but “supposedly” Bible-derived statements, I rather defer to what was directly revealed to her in her vision in this 1SG/EW vision. In fact I believe that she was making such statement elsewhere seeking to find, though exegetically not successfully, Biblical support in order to dampen the contradicting revelation from that vision. You wrote, "As I see it . . . EGW wrongly reads . . . her inaccurate exegesis led her to make a wrong conclusion." As I see it, on the other hand, I believe she arrived at the correct conclusion. However, I do not feel compelled to "defend myself". Ellen also wrote: The law of love is the foundation of God's government, and the service of love the only service acceptable to Heaven. God has granted freedom of will to all, endowed men with capacity to appreciate His character, and therefore with ability to love Him and to choose His service. So long as created beings worshiped God they were in harmony throughout the universe. While love to God was supreme, love to others abounded. As there was no transgression of the law, which is the transcript of God's character, no note of discord jarred the celestial harmonies. {TMK 366.2}
But known unto God are all His works, and from eternal ages the covenant of grace (unmerited favor) existed in the mind of God. It is called the everlasting covenant, for the plan of salvation was not conceived after the fall of man, but it was that which was "kept in silence through times eternal, but now is manifested, and . . . made known unto all the nations . . ." (Romans 16:25, 26, R.V.). . . . {TMK 366.3}
Before Him who ruleth in the heavens the mysteries of the past and future are alike outspread, and God sees beyond the woe and darkness and ruin that sin has wrought, the outworking of His purpose of love and blessing. Though clouds and darkness are round about Him, yet righteousness and judgment are the foundation of His throne. . . . Through the plan of salvation a larger purpose is to be wrought out even than the salvation of man and the redemption of the earth. Through the revelation of the character of God in Christ, the beneficence of the divine government would be manifested before the universe, the charge of Satan refuted, the nature and result of sin made plain, and the perpetuity of the law fully demonstrated. {TMK 366.4}
Then the extermination of sin will vindicate God's love and establish His honor before a universe of beings who delight to do His will, and in whose heart is His law. {TMK 366.5} There has never been any doubt in God's mind. He has always known Jesus would succeed at saving and redeeming mankind thus magnifying the law and the character and kingdom of God. I don’t see any logic towards understanding especially this issue by circularly quoting EGW’s comments and merely citing philosophical maxim and theories. We could circularly be here for weeks doing that. My foundation is first the Bible and direct SOP Revelation. The rest fall into line with this and the clear evidence it provides. The various words and expression in EGW’s vision, which as 1SP 45 shows she could have altered is she was at revelatory liberty to do so, are too clear and straightforward to see otherwise.
“Truly I say to you, to the extent that you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to Me.” Matt 25:45 NJK Project
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Re: Are there contradictions in the writings of EGW?
[Re: Rosangela]
#132640
04/12/11 07:48 PM
04/12/11 07:48 PM
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Banned Member
Dedicated Member
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Joined: Aug 2005
Posts: 1,098
Laval, Quebec
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So with all of these applicable internal Biblical specification, it can be concluded that the syntactical rendering of the (genitive case) “pro” in Eph 1:4 should be according to its possible, general, “Spatial” sense.
Rosangela: The preposition pro is clearly used in a temporal sense, not in a spacial sense, for "the foundation of the world" is obviously a point in time, and not a physical place. There is no question about that. Strictly speaking “spatial” indeed refers to a physical space. However if you would not be sure of, in this case, exactly when men fell during this period of the ‘foundation of the world’, which generally could refer to the earliest moments (e.g., 2 months), I see that it can be “spatially” used as ‘seeking to find some point during that foundational time to, figuratively, settle in.’ Combined with the clear message in that direct EGW vision, that ‘no way of escape was made before the Fall, even after Creation” then I see that this ‘unsettled floating point’ in that tangibly “space” of time as being applicable. I don’t see another Greek preposition being capable of expressing this manifest reality of” ‘an unknown date, in an also prioritorily prior, known space of time’. Using “apo” as the preposition (away from/since) here instead (as in Rev 13:8 & 17:8) would come to mean that these NT believers had been “elected” since then. However that may pointedly not be what Paul wanted to convey, instead showing, as I (expansively) understanding: ‘it had become possible for them to be elected in Christ’s establishment priorly at a time during the period foundation of the world, (whenever that had occurred)’. Doing a syntactical search and analysis, including in the Greek OT and Classical Greek, to confirm this is not feasible for me right now, however I personally see that I have adequate corroborating support for that view. I will later however.
“Truly I say to you, to the extent that you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to Me.” Matt 25:45 NJK Project
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Re: Are there contradictions in the writings of EGW?
[Re: Rosangela]
#132641
04/12/11 07:49 PM
04/12/11 07:49 PM
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Banned Member
Dedicated Member
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Joined: Aug 2005
Posts: 1,098
Laval, Quebec
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NJK: As she uses these to make her “therefore” conclusion, it can transparently be seen that her inaccurate exegesis led her to make a wrong conclusion here.
Rosangela: Under such a view nothing EGW wrote is reliable, and what she wrote can be even misleading. My point was, if the Bible versions she used were mistranslated and/or had manuscript text errors, as these texts she used to based her conclusions on exegetically were, then it is not wrong to see that her conclusion would be tainted by that. Indeed in e.g., Christ’s statement to Mary in John 20:16, EGW for years just quote her KJV Bible which said: “Touch me not” until something, perhaps her vision on this, revealed to her that is should (at least) instead be “Do not detain me”. Again Biblical exegesis (also with direct SOP revelations) and then EGW’s own comments. Relatedly, as I have seen it from this other discussion on the 2 Ascensions of Christ, EGW can sometimes seemingly disregardingly, wrongly apply her direct visions, which in this case would explain why the direct revelations in this Plan of Redemption vision were not given its proper weight, probably to defend what she believed was a Truth in regards to the Classical View of Foreknowledge.
“Truly I say to you, to the extent that you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to Me.” Matt 25:45 NJK Project
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Re: Are there contradictions in the writings of EGW?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#132645
04/13/11 02:35 AM
04/13/11 02:35 AM
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Banned Member
Dedicated Member
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Joined: Aug 2005
Posts: 1,098
Laval, Quebec
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I see that God did love* the world however, He just did not see then that the chances of failure were worth the risk. So in the end, Jesus talked Him into yielding and only by having a love for the world was that even possible to occur. One cannot be convinced without threats to do something which they hate, even if there is much risk involved. Love for Jesus, seeing how this greatly saddened Him probably also served to win Him out. Of the Godhead, Jesus said, "The Lord our God is one Lord." "They are one in purpose, in mind, in character, but not in person. It is thus that God and Christ are one." {8T 269.4} It is difficult to imagine the Father and Son having opposing views regarding implementing the plan of salvation. It is also difficult to imagine the Son initially having better or more complete ideas and insights about it than the Father. With the direct vision of EGW in EW 149-153 one does not have to “imagine” this. By “yielding” to Christ then the Father and the Son became united in the purpose of redeeming fallen Man or not... and it took three struggling attempts!
“Truly I say to you, to the extent that you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to Me.” Matt 25:45 NJK Project
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Re: Are there contradictions in the writings of EGW?
[Re: NJK Project]
#132648
04/13/11 01:31 PM
04/13/11 01:31 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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I don’t see any logic towards understanding especially this issue by circularly quoting EGW’s comments and merely citing philosophical maxim and theories. We could circularly be here for weeks doing that. My foundation is first the Bible and direct SOP Revelation. The rest fall into line with this and the clear evidence it provides. The various words and expression in EGW’s vision, which as 1SP 45 shows she could have altered is she was at revelatory liberty to do so, are too clear and straightforward to see otherwise. Such emphatic comments force me to choose between your understanding of the Bible and Ellen's understanding of the Bible. I do not feel enlightened enough to reject her understanding in favor of yours or mine or anyone else. There was no doubt in her mind there was no doubt in God's mind. Both the Father and the Son knew with absolute certainty Jesus would succeed on the cross saving and redeeming mankind. Such a God I can trust. The god you're advocating does not appeal to me. There is no way I could trust such a god. I realize you believe you are right and Ellen is wrong and that's where we'll have to leave it for now.
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