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Re: Does Romans 7 describe a believer sinning? #15770
10/11/05 03:14 PM
10/11/05 03:14 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
quote:
So far several of us have shared our personal testimonies, and have attempted to verify it in Romans 7. But who is right? Can we interpret scriptures based on private interpretations?
No, we cannot interpret scriptures based on private interpretations, but we can refute statements which have to do with our personal experience. For example, if one states, "No unconverted person could (whatever)" this statement can be refuted. This doesn't have to do with interpreting scripture, but with personal opinion.

If one's interpretation of Scripture is intertwined with the personal opinion, then that could be a problem.

The point is the Scripture is not saying an unconverted person cannot utter and mean certain words -- that's just a personal opinion, and opinion which I, and others, can attest by personal experience is wrong.

Re: Does Romans 7 describe a believer sinning? #15771
10/11/05 03:39 PM
10/11/05 03:39 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
If you read either Sister White's quote (the one speaking of Paul, and quoting Romans 7) or consider the context of Romans 7 itself, it appears to me the sin Paul was dealing with was the sin of self-rightoueness -- that is, Paul was attempting to keep the law without being converted. He was unable to do so, and the law brought home to him his condition. In particular, the law against coveting did him in.

The reason the law against coveting caused him such problems, I think, is because it is a law which has to do with ones thoughts. Paul could do all the external things right, but he could not control his thoughts. He knew what was insider of him was not right, and that's what led him to utter the words he did. When he availed himself of "saving grace" he was delivered from his dilema.

It's interesting to me that you (Mike) are so dependent upon Romans 7 to establish a principle which is true (that we are tempted by our flesh) but is not dependent upon Romans 7 to establish. Your interpretation of Romans 7 seems to be dependent on two things:

1)Your idea that an uncoverted cannot utter the words in vs. 24 (which is a personal opinion that several have questioned on the basis of personal experience).
2)A theory you have which you have based on Romans 7.

The theory may be true without your interpretation of Romans 7 being correct. To establish that your interpretation of Romans 7 is correct, it would be a good idea, IMO, to set aside 1) and 2) above and consider what the text says, and consider the context.

The context seems to be suggesting Paul was dealing with some difficulty in Romans 7, and was delivered from that difficulty in Romans 8. Even if Paul was referring to himself as unconverted in Romans 7, that does not mean that the principle being discussed in Romans 7 does not apply to a converted person as well. Sorry for the double negative. Let me restate this. Given that Paul is unconverted in Romans 7, the principle Paul refers to may apply just as much to a converted person as to an unconverted person. The discussion as to whether Paul is converted or not in Romans 7 is only a part of the question. The other part is, what was it that Paul was delivered from?

Re: Does Romans 7 describe a believer sinning? #15772
10/12/05 07:40 AM
10/12/05 07:40 AM
J
John Boskovic  Offline
Dedicated Member
Joined: Aug 2002
Posts: 1,196
Ontario
quote:
The power to sin is the power of choice. No one and nothing can force us to sin.
This is an interesting statement. Let’s say agreed, but we need to understand: what choice?

quote:
The law of sin and death resides within us, within our sinful flesh nature, and, as such, it remains to tempt us until Jesus returns.
The Law of sin and death does not reside in the flesh, but in the spirit of fallen man, and as such must be and is overcome now by the Law of the spirit of life. The law of sin and death is ‘the modus operandi’ of the spirit of fallen man; in simple words, the subjection of the spirit to the flesh. Thus the flesh rules the spirit.

quote:
It is the law of the Spirit of Life in Jesus that empowers us to partake of the divine nature, which, in turn, enables us to imitate the sinless example of Jesus.
The law of the spirit of Life in Christ Jesus breaks the subjection of our spirit to the flesh, and establishes the spirit of God as the source for our spirit. Thus the spirit rules the flesh.

Re: Does Romans 7 describe a believer sinning? #15773
10/12/05 08:42 AM
10/12/05 08:42 AM
J
John Boskovic  Offline
Dedicated Member
Joined: Aug 2002
Posts: 1,196
Ontario
quote:
John: All the things you mentioned are but the result of sin in the flesh. Temptations are not sin.

MM: That’s my point.

Agreed.

quote:
MM: Paul isn’t talking about sinning; he’s talking about the temptations produced by sinful flesh nature. The only thing fallen flesh nature can “do” is tempt us with unholy thoughts and feelings. It cannot commit a sin.
Paul here is not talking about temptations at all. He is talking about searching for a way to do that which is good. He is describing to us how he discovered his ‘modus operandi’ (the way fallen man functions). He is describing it in different stages of realization.

First comes the knowledge (by the law) of that which is good, which he in mind agrees and accepts, but his spirit is still subject to the flesh (his modus operandi is still the law of sin and death) so he finds no means of doing that which is good, no matter which way he tries. Then he begins to relate his realization of the difference between the functions of his spirit, mind, and flesh, and his choice which to identify with. But he still has not discovered how to function so as to live that good which he approves of. (his modus operandi is still the law of sin and death, his spirit is still subject to his flesh) Then he begins to realize the laws that govern his modus operandi and in verse 23 he establishes it. He cries out for deliverance, and in verse 25 establishes separation. Then in the beginning of Chapter 8, reveals that his modus operandi is now fundamentally changed and that his spirit is no longer subject to the flesh or his mind, but to the spirit of God. Thus the law of sin and death is overcome by the law of spirit of life in Christ Jesus. Now he is able to do that good which before he could not.

Now The spirit of God governs (is source for) his spirit,
his spirit governs (is source for) his mind, which in turns governs his body.

Re: Does Romans 7 describe a believer sinning? #15774
10/12/05 09:01 AM
10/12/05 09:01 AM
J
John Boskovic  Offline
Dedicated Member
Joined: Aug 2002
Posts: 1,196
Ontario
In fallen state:
Man’s lower nature (flesh) governs (is source for) his spirit,
The spirit governs his mind,
which governs the flesh

Thus fallen man is short-circuited by his ‘modus operandi’ which establishes the law of sin and death

Re: Does Romans 7 describe a believer sinning? #15775
10/13/05 02:52 AM
10/13/05 02:52 AM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
SDA
Charter Member
Active Member 2019

20000+ Member
Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
Tom, it looks as though we agree on key points. That’s good. That is, we both agree that the source of our internally generated temptations is fallen flesh nature. I believe Paul refers to it as the “sin” that dwells in us, in our flesh, in verses 17-20. On this we disagree.

John, I like how you make a difference between being under the dominion of the flesh and being under the dominion of the spirit. Do you believe the flesh remains until Jesus returns, that it continues to tempt us after we are born again, after we come under the dominion of the spirit?

Re: Does Romans 7 describe a believer sinning? #15776
10/12/05 03:35 PM
10/12/05 03:35 PM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
SDA
Charter Member
Active Member 2019

20000+ Member
Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
This quote equates the sin that dwells in our flesh with our inherited sinful propensities:

1BC 1083
In what consisted the strength of the assault made upon Adam, which caused his fall? It was not indwelling sin; for God made Adam after His own character, pure and upright. There were no corrupt principles in the first Adam, no corrupt propensities or tendencies to evil. Adam was as faultless as the angels before God's throne. These things are inexplainable, but many things which now we cannot understand will be made plain when we shall see as we are seen, and know as we are known (Letter 191, 1899). {1BC 1083.6}

Re: Does Romans 7 describe a believer sinning? #15777
10/12/05 07:08 PM
10/12/05 07:08 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
John, I think that was a very nice explanation of Romans 7. I personally would have used the word "mind" instead of "spirit", but I think this is a minor point, although I'm curious to know if you agree with this (i.e. would you be comfortable substituting "mind" for "spirit" when dealing with man, or do you see "spirit" as meaning something fundamentally different?)

quote:
Tom, it looks as though we agree on key points. That’s good. That is, we both agree that the source of our internally generated temptations is fallen flesh nature.
I agree this is a source, but not the only source. Both our inherited and cultivated tendencies tempt us. Actually we may still be in agreement, since, if I understand you correctly, you believe that our fallen flesh includes cultivated habits as well. I see the flesh as dealing exclusively with inherited tendencies and the mind with cultivated tendencies, so I see both the flesh and the mind involved in our temptations , although in a sense the flesh refers to the mind as well, what the Spirit of Prophesy cause the lower something-or-other. Lower elements. Can't remember. Anyway I would say both the lower elements of the mind and higher elements (the part of the mind that has memory) are involved in our internal temptation. I don't see any difference in this and how one is tempted before conversion. The difference is that after temptation there is a desire to please God and do what is right for righteousness sake which was not present before (at least not to the same degree, and not in the context of having a salvific relationship with Christ).

quote:
I believe Paul refers to it as the “sin” that dwells in us, in our flesh, in verses 17-20. On this we disagree.
I think John is correct in what he wrote on this.

Re: Does Romans 7 describe a believer sinning? #15778
10/13/05 01:03 AM
10/13/05 01:03 AM
J
John Boskovic  Offline
Dedicated Member
Joined: Aug 2002
Posts: 1,196
Ontario
quote:
John, I like how you make a difference between being under the dominion of the flesh and being under the dominion of the spirit. Do you believe the flesh remains until Jesus returns; that it continues to tempt us after we are born again, after we come under the dominion of the spirit?
The flesh certainly remains. The body does not change. The tendencies residing in the flesh take their natural course. However, we must not make too much of this, once the spirit is set free from the flesh and under the spirit of God, the law of sin and death is broken, and the temptations then which proceed from the flesh are the same as temptations that would proceed from any other source. In other words separation has occurred and the impulses from the flesh are regarded as those of a stranger, better yet enemy.

The difficulty occurs that many do not regard that in my flesh there dwells no good thing. But they regard that there are good and there are bad aspects. So sin uses the things that are held as good for an avenue for the bad. And they are overcome.

Re: Does Romans 7 describe a believer sinning? #15779
10/13/05 01:42 AM
10/13/05 01:42 AM
J
John Boskovic  Offline
Dedicated Member
Joined: Aug 2002
Posts: 1,196
Ontario
quote:
John, I think that was a very nice explanation of Romans 7. I personally would have used the word "mind" instead of "spirit", but I think this is a minor point, although I'm curious to know if you agree with this (i.e. would you be comfortable substituting "mind" for "spirit" when dealing with man, or do you see "spirit" as meaning something fundamentally different?)
I figured you might say that. Often times in conversation mind and spirit could be interchanged depending on the context and aspect. However they are fundamentally and functionally different; different in their government and powers. Basically speaking mind deals with learned knowledge, values, principles, purposes etc. These have been received, accepted and validated by the spirit of man. The spirit largely consists of will and faith. Before anything becomes ours in the mind, it needs to be accepted (given authority and validity) by our spirit. The highest authority in man is his spirit. The spirit does not have to be subject, and is not supposed to be subject to whatever is in the mind. It can override it invalidate it, or investigate things unknown. But the spirit must have a source. In other words, something is trusted (whether reasonable or not, known or unknown. Yet that something is chosen by the will. Whatever is the source is master over us.

Here is something to see. Man is the temple of God. The sanctuary represents man. The most holy place is the spirit, the holy place is the mind, and the outer court is the body. The activities of the temple services correspond. Once realized, it shows the beautiful picture of salvation. Perhaps this could be a topic.

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