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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: scott]
#100534
07/04/08 03:16 PM
07/04/08 03:16 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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Matthew 5: 38"You have heard that it was said, 'Eye for eye, and tooth for tooth.' 39But I tell you, Do not resist an evil person. 43"You have heard that it was said, 'Love your neighbor and hate your enemy.' 44 But I tell you: Love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you, 45that you may be sons of your Father in heaven. He causes his sun to rise on the evil and the good, and sends rain on the righteous and the unrighteous.
MM: What Jesus said was inherent in the law of Moses.
S: Not according to Jesus’ words. Jesus said “you have heard, but I say”. That is very clear language that what Moses said was different that was Jesus was saying. The word “but” is called an adversative or continuative. It can mean “but” or “moreover”, something adverse to or addition to. The only way to interpret it is though the context and the context is adversative. Jesus is comparing what they heard from Moses with what He was teaching. Jesus claimed authority over Moses many times, but not to undermine Moses. He saw Himself as the fulfillment of what Moses was called to start. Is it possible Jesus was contrasting a Jewish perversion of the law of Moses with what was actually inherent within the law of Moses? [quote=Scott]I agree that what Jesus said was inherent in the law of Moses only in principle. In other words the principles that Moses’ laws were based on were the same principles that Jesus’ word was based on. The difference being the revelation of God that Jesus came to show us. Jesus is the exegesis of the OT. He explains it and not the other way around. It testifies of Him and He verifies its meaning. If you want prophetic proof that Jesus is the Messiah you go the the OT, but if you want to know what the OT was all about all we have to do is know God through Jesus. We don’t look at the OT as a revelation of God. It was a revelation of our affiliation with sin and our condemnation. Jesus is the perfect image of the Father and the only full revelation of truth this world has ever seen. "We don’t look at the OT as a revelation of God." Scott, do you have inspired statements to support this idea? Are your thoughts on this similar to the following inspired thoughts? God designed the Bible to be a lesson-book to all mankind, in childhood, youth, and manhood, and to be studied through all time. He gave His Word to men as a revelation of Himself. . . . It is the medium of communication between God and man. {FLB 10.5} In the truths of His word, God has given to men a revelation of Himself; and to all who accept them they are a shield against the deceptions of Satan. It is a neglect of these truths that has opened the door to the evils which are now becoming so widespread in the religious world. {GC 465.1} The whole Bible is a revelation of the glory of God in Christ. Received, believed, obeyed, it is the great instrumentality in the transformation of character. It is the grand stimulus, the constraining force, that quickens the physical, mental, and spiritual powers and directs the life into right channels. {1MCP 93.4} The solemn service of sacrifice and worship at the sanctuary and the utterances of the prophets were a revelation of God. {PP 592.2} Jesus said of the Old Testament Scriptures,--and how much more is it true of the New,--"They are they which testify of Me," the Redeemer, Him in whom our hopes of eternal life are centered. John 5:39. Yes, the whole Bible tells of Christ. From the first record of creation--for "without Him was not anything made that was made"--to the closing promise, "Behold, I come quickly," we are reading of His works and listening to His voice. John 1:3; Revelation 22:12. If you would become acquainted with the Saviour, study the Holy Scriptures. {SC 88.1} The Old Testament sheds light upon the New, and the New upon the Old. Each is a revelation of the glory of God in Christ. Christ as manifested to the patriarchs, as symbolized in the sacrificial service, as portrayed in the law, and as revealed by the prophets is the riches of the Old Testament. Christ in His life, His death, and His resurrection; Christ as He is manifested by the Holy Spirit, is the treasure of the New. Both Old and New present truths that will continually reveal new depths of meaning to the earnest seeker. {CT 462.3} Often as He had presented the Old Testament Scriptures, and showed their application to Himself and His work of atonement, they had been awakened by His Spirit, and lifted into a heavenly atmosphere. Of the spiritual truths spoken by the prophets they had a clearer understanding than had the original writers themselves. Hereafter they would read the Old Testament Scriptures, not as the doctrines of the scribes and Pharisees, not as the utterances of wise men who were dead, but as a new revelation from God. {DA 494.3} The two witnesses represent the Scriptures of the Old and the New Testament. Both are important testimonies to the origin and perpetuity of the law of God. Both are witnesses also to the plan of salvation. The types, sacrifices, and prophecies of the Old Testament point forward to a Saviour to come. The Gospels and Epistles of the New Testament tell of a Saviour who has come in the exact manner foretold by type and prophecy. {GC 267.1} It was Christ that spoke to His people through the prophets. The apostle Peter, writing to the Christian church, says that the prophets "prophesied of the grace that should come unto you: searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ and the glory that should follow." 1 Peter 1:10, 11. It is the voice of Christ that speaks to us through the Old Testament. "The testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy." Revelation 19:10. {PP 366.3}
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#100539
07/04/08 03:38 PM
07/04/08 03:38 PM
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SDA Active Member 2021
5500+ Member
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Joined: Apr 2008
Posts: 7,003
The Orient
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MountainMan,
Amen! Spoken like a true defender of the faith! "Give me the Bible, holy message shining, ...precept and promise, law and love combining...!"
Blessings,
Green Cochoa.
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: scott]
#100541
07/04/08 03:44 PM
07/04/08 03:44 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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2 Corinthians 3: 7Now if the ministry that brought death, which was engraved in letters on stone, came with glory, so that the Israelites could not look steadily at the face of Moses because of its glory, fading though it was, 8will not the ministry of the Spirit be even more glorious? 9If the ministry that condemns men is glorious, how much more glorious is the ministry that brings righteousness! 10For what was glorious has no glory now in comparison with the surpassing glory. 11And if what was fading away came with glory, how much greater is the glory of that which lasts!
MM: This certainly isn't saying the law is no longer binding. Hi MM, Paul calls the 10 Commandment (engraved in letters on stone) “the ministry that condemns” and says that it is “fading away”. He also says that "the ministry of death", the 10 Commandments that bring condemnation, have no glory compared to the ministry of the Spirit that brings righteousness. What do you mean by “no longer binding” Didn’t you just say that the 10 Commandments, in Galatians 3, are the schoolmaster who led us to Christ of which we are no longer under? What does “no longer under”, “ministry of death”, and “fading away” mean to you? By “no longer binding” I mean no longer obligated to obey and observe. In other words, I feel Paul is not saying we are no longer obligated to obey and observe the law. “No longer under” to me means no longer under the condemnation of the law. The "ministry of death” is being under the condemnation of the law. And “fading away” means condemnation is replaced by salvation.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#100543
07/04/08 03:51 PM
07/04/08 03:51 PM
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OP
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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Hebrews 8: 13By calling this covenant "new," he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear.
MM: I suppose this is referring to the ceremonial aspects of the law.
S: I find it interesting how you dissect the Old Covenant into whatever part fits your theology. How would you have him say this MM? I think he's making a valid point, and it doesn't seem to me that he made it in an unkind way. However, I respect completely that you are the one reading the comments and apparently felt offended. That's your right. How could he have made the point that you are accepting some things and rejecting others in order to fit with your theology in a way which would not have been offense?
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Tom]
#100545
07/04/08 03:59 PM
07/04/08 03:59 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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[quote=Tom Ewall] MM:Timing is everything, as they say. The law of Moses outlined very specific punishments for specific crimes. They were administered under a Theocracy. Nowadays, we are no longer a Theocracy, right? So, things have changed. I do not pretend to understand everything God outlined in the law of Moses. At times I am tempted to think certain aspects of it were unfair. But I immediately recognize such thoughts as the voice of Satan.
T:Maybe you're confusing voices here.
MM:Are you suggesting that it is Jesus who is attempting to speak to my heart, to help me understand that certain aspects of the law of Moses represent the will of Satan?
TE: Now you're misrepresenting what you yourself wrote! I'm glad to know it's not something personal! Reread what you wrote, and where I made my comment, and it should be clear what I'm suggesting. Which voice are you referring to? Please explain what you mean. Thank you. M:I am convinced that the law of Moses represented God's will for the COI. I am in no way confused as to whether or not it reflects a compromise to accommodate their hard hearts and sinfulness.
T:You seem to be confused to an extent, because you cannot answer a simply question like why God would want women's hands to be cut off. You just say, "I don't know." That sounds like confusion.
MM:Do you know why God commanded Moses to cut off women's hands?
TE: My point has been that God was dealing with a backward and stiffnecked people, and so had to make accommodations for them. This is just one example of that. Wouldn't it make more sense, if God wanted to teach them the opposite of what He commanded in the law of Moses, to command what He wanted to teach them? By commanding them to do the opposite of what He wanted to teach them, it seems to me He was strengthening things He wanted to correct rather than helping them overcome them. MM: One could speculate Jesus commanded this punishment for this particular act in order to emphasize how important it is for men to be able to have children because Jesus would one day be born of a virgin. If women went around grabbing men and preventing them from having children then the virgin would not be born.
TE: But the same thing would apply to men. Why shouldn't men's hands be cut off? Why only women's? Does the law of Moses address men grabbing men's secret places? If not specifically addressed, then wouldn't it be implied? MM: Again, polygamy and capital punishment do not violate the law of God when administered in harmony with the law of Moses. I don't know about lying and stealing. Ananias and Sapphira didn't make out so well when they lied and stole.
TE: According to the statement I've cited a number of times now, polygamy is a sin, contrary to the law of God, never sanctioned in a single instance. Aren't you suggesting that the law of Moses sanctioned it? I'm not suggesting it, Tom. I'm clearly saying polygamy is part of the law of Moses. My question to you is - Was it a sin for a man to have more than one wife at a time if he acted in harmony with the law of Moses? You have made it plain you believe God permitted it, but you have not plainly answered whether or not it was a sin in the eyes of God. What do you think?
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Tom]
#100547
07/04/08 04:10 PM
07/04/08 04:10 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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MM:That's not how the Bible describes the "strange acts" performed by God. Please show me in Bible where it says such a thing.
TE:Ok. Here's an example:
And the people spake against God, and against Moses, Wherefore have ye brought us up out of Egypt to die in the wilderness? for there is no bread, neither is there any water; and our soul loatheth this light bread.
And the LORD sent fiery serpents among the people, and they bit the people; and much people of Israel died. (Numbers 21:5,6)
MM:How does this example address my question? How does it support your view?
TE: God's "strange act" is his giving someone up for destruction. The fiery serpents are an example of that. How is it an example of God giving them up to destruction? What did He do, or not do, that resulted in snakes suddenly biting people and then suddenly stop biting them? MM: Please cite an example of Jesus, while here in the flesh, sending fiery serpents to punish people. And, while you are at it, please post an example of Jesus withdrawing His protection and allowing evil angels to kill people. Thank you. By the way, am I correct in assuming you believe God does these kinds of things?
TE: We've been through this several times already. You've asked me to provide examples, and I did. If you don't like the examples, fine, but there's no point in just asking for the same thing over and over again. I seem to recall you citing Jesus predicting the destruction of Jerusalem as an example of Jesus withdrawing His protection while here in the flesh. If this is your example, then I don't see how it fits. I asked you for an example of Jesus doing it while here in the flesh, not 40 years after He returned to heaven. TE: Regarding your question on polygamy, my answer is that polygamy is contrary to God's will, was never sanctioned by Him in a single instance, and is a violation of His law. MM: Yes, I know you believe this, but my question doesn't have anything to do with this. I am specifically interested in learning what you believe about the law of Moses which makes provisions for a man to have more than one wife. Is he guilty of sinning if he acts in harmony with the law of Moses and takes more than one wife? Do you understand my question? If not, I will attempt to state it in a way you can understand. Thank you. Please believe me, I am not being facetious or sarcastic. TE: You were being sarcastic when you wrote "Thank you for stating the obvious." Here's an EGW statement: Said the angel, "If light comes, and that light is set aside, or rejected, then comes condemnation and the frown of God; but before the light comes there is no sin, for there is no light for them to reject." (Spiritual Gifts Volume 4b) Using this definition for sin, I would say no, not guilty of sinning. Not even ignorantly? That is, was he sinning ignorantly? By the way, I was not being sarcastic. Please believe me.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Tom]
#100549
07/04/08 04:33 PM
07/04/08 04:33 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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Hebrews 8: 13By calling this covenant "new," he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear.
MM: I suppose this is referring to the ceremonial aspects of the law.
S: I find it interesting how you dissect the Old Covenant into whatever part fits your theology. How would you have him say this MM? I think he's making a valid point, and it doesn't seem to me that he made it in an unkind way. However, I respect completely that you are the one reading the comments and apparently felt offended. That's your right. How could he have made the point that you are accepting some things and rejecting others in order to fit with your theology in a way which would not have been offense? Valid point? Says who? The law of Moses is composed of parts: judicial, diet, health, ceremonial, etc. Do you believe every aspect of the law of Moses was nailed to the cross? If not, which aspects or parts do you believe are still binding? By the way, Scott made an unkind and unwarranted judgment call. He accused me of not rightly dividing the Word of God to suit my theology. Who gave him the right or authority to criticize me? What good does it accomplish? Can you imagine Jesus criticizing a sincere seeker after truth? Or, do you assume I am not sincerely seeking after the truth, and that I deserve such criticism?
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#100550
07/04/08 04:38 PM
07/04/08 04:38 PM
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OP
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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"Thank you for stating the obvious" is not sarcastic? You are genuinely thankful that I stated something obvious? You want me to believe this?
MM, I understand English. This is a 100% sarcastic phrase. No native English speaker would state this phrase for any other reason than sarcasm.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Tom]
#100552
07/04/08 04:48 PM
07/04/08 04:48 PM
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OP
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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How is it an example of God giving them up to destruction? What did He do, or not do, that resulted in snakes suddenly biting people and then suddenly stop biting them? God withdrew His protection. I seem to recall you citing Jesus predicting the destruction of Jerusalem as an example of Jesus withdrawing His protection while here in the flesh. If this is your example, then I don't see how it fits. I asked you for an example of Jesus doing it while here in the flesh, not 40 years after He returned to heaven. Jesus said: O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, which killest the prophets, and stonest them that are sent unto thee; how often would I have gathered thy children together, as a hen doth gather her brood under her wings, and ye would not! This was during his lifetime, not 40 years after.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#100562
07/04/08 06:58 PM
07/04/08 06:58 PM
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Matthew 5: 38"You have heard that it was said, 'Eye for eye, and tooth for tooth.' 39But I tell you, Do not resist an evil person. 43"You have heard that it was said, 'Love your neighbor and hate your enemy.' 44 But I tell you: Love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you, 45that you may be sons of your Father in heaven. He causes his sun to rise on the evil and the good, and sends rain on the righteous and the unrighteous.
MM: What Jesus said was inherent in the law of Moses.
S: Not according to Jesus’ words. Jesus said “you have heard, but I say”. That is very clear language that what Moses said was different that was Jesus was saying. The word “but” is called an adversative or continuative. It can mean “but” or “moreover”, something adverse to or addition to. The only way to interpret it is though the context and the context is adversative. Jesus is comparing what they heard from Moses with what He was teaching. Jesus claimed authority over Moses many times, but not to undermine Moses. He saw Himself as the fulfillment of what Moses was called to start. Is it possible Jesus was contrasting a Jewish perversion of the law of Moses with what was actually inherent within the law of Moses? [quote=Scott]I agree that what Jesus said was inherent in the law of Moses only in principle. In other words the principles that Moses’ laws were based on were the same principles that Jesus’ word was based on. The difference being the revelation of God that Jesus came to show us. Jesus is the exegesis of the OT. He explains it and not the other way around. It testifies of Him and He verifies its meaning. If you want prophetic proof that Jesus is the Messiah you go the the OT, but if you want to know what the OT was all about all we have to do is know God through Jesus. We don’t look at the OT as a revelation of God. It was a revelation of our affiliation with sin and our condemnation. Jesus is the perfect image of the Father and the only full revelation of truth this world has ever seen. "We don’t look at the OT as a revelation of God." Scott, do you have inspired statements to support this idea? Are your thoughts on this similar to the following inspired thoughts? God designed the Bible to be a lesson-book to all mankind, in childhood, youth, and manhood, and to be studied through all time. He gave His Word to men as a revelation of Himself. . . . It is the medium of communication between God and man. {FLB 10.5} In the truths of His word, God has given to men a revelation of Himself; and to all who accept them they are a shield against the deceptions of Satan. It is a neglect of these truths that has opened the door to the evils which are now becoming so widespread in the religious world. {GC 465.1} The whole Bible is a revelation of the glory of God in Christ. Received, believed, obeyed, it is the great instrumentality in the transformation of character. It is the grand stimulus, the constraining force, that quickens the physical, mental, and spiritual powers and directs the life into right channels. {1MCP 93.4} The solemn service of sacrifice and worship at the sanctuary and the utterances of the prophets were a revelation of God. {PP 592.2} Jesus said of the Old Testament Scriptures,--and how much more is it true of the New,--"They are they which testify of Me," the Redeemer, Him in whom our hopes of eternal life are centered. John 5:39. Yes, the whole Bible tells of Christ. From the first record of creation--for "without Him was not anything made that was made"--to the closing promise, "Behold, I come quickly," we are reading of His works and listening to His voice. John 1:3; Revelation 22:12. If you would become acquainted with the Saviour, study the Holy Scriptures. {SC 88.1} The Old Testament sheds light upon the New, and the New upon the Old. Each is a revelation of the glory of God in Christ. Christ as manifested to the patriarchs, as symbolized in the sacrificial service, as portrayed in the law, and as revealed by the prophets is the riches of the Old Testament. Christ in His life, His death, and His resurrection; Christ as He is manifested by the Holy Spirit, is the treasure of the New. Both Old and New present truths that will continually reveal new depths of meaning to the earnest seeker. {CT 462.3} Often as He had presented the Old Testament Scriptures, and showed their application to Himself and His work of atonement, they had been awakened by His Spirit, and lifted into a heavenly atmosphere. Of the spiritual truths spoken by the prophets they had a clearer understanding than had the original writers themselves. Hereafter they would read the Old Testament Scriptures, not as the doctrines of the scribes and Pharisees, not as the utterances of wise men who were dead, but as a new revelation from God. {DA 494.3} The two witnesses represent the Scriptures of the Old and the New Testament. Both are important testimonies to the origin and perpetuity of the law of God. Both are witnesses also to the plan of salvation. The types, sacrifices, and prophecies of the Old Testament point forward to a Saviour to come. The Gospels and Epistles of the New Testament tell of a Saviour who has come in the exact manner foretold by type and prophecy. {GC 267.1} It was Christ that spoke to His people through the prophets. The apostle Peter, writing to the Christian church, says that the prophets "prophesied of the grace that should come unto you: searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ and the glory that should follow." 1 Peter 1:10, 11. It is the voice of Christ that speaks to us through the Old Testament. "The testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy." Revelation 19:10. {PP 366.3} Hi MM, Every one of these quotes verifies exactly what I said. Notice the term "in Christ". The bible as a whole is a complete revelation of God's character, but if you leave out the NT all you have is prophecies leading you to Christ. The OT leads us to Christ and Christ is the fullness of God revealed. Look at this quote: The Old Testament sheds light upon the New, and the New upon the Old. Each is a revelation of the glory of God in Christ. Christ as manifested to the patriarchs, as symbolized in the sacrificial service, as portrayed in the law, and as revealed by the prophets is the riches of the Old Testament. Christ in His life, His death, and His resurrection; Christ as He is manifested by the Holy Spirit, is the treasure of the New. Both Old and New present truths that will continually reveal new depths of meaning to the earnest seeker. {CT 462.3} Notice how each testament is a revelation of the glory of God in Christ. Everything in the Old pointed to Christ! Here is another one: Jesus said of the Old Testament Scriptures,--and how much more is it true of the New,--"They are they which testify of Me," the Redeemer, Him in whom our hopes of eternal life are centered. John 5:39. Yes, the whole Bible tells of Christ. From the first record of creation--for "without Him was not anything made that was made"--to the closing promise, "Behold, I come quickly," we are reading of His works and listening to His voice. John 1:3; Revelation 22:12. If you would become acquainted with the Saviour, study the Holy Scriptures. {SC 88.1}
This is exactly my point! You are the one trying to prove that the OT reveals the character of God, but you give me quotes stating exactly my point: The OT reveals Christ and Christ reveals God’s character! The OT reveals God’s character by confirming Christ. The OT is the objective evidence that Jesus is truly God and truly the one God sent. Think about it. How could Jesus do any thing other than reveal God if He is God? scott
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