Do we agree, then, that slavery, when practiced by Jews in accordance with the law of Moses, was not a sin?

I did quote you. In response to my question regarding the law of Moses you wrote - "God allowed certain practices because of the hardness of men's heart." Since God "allowed" these sinful practices in the law of Moses, it would seem you believe God accommodated sinning in the law of Moses.


So, are you suggesting it wasn't considered sinning when Jews obeyed the law of Moses? If so, do you apply this insight to executing the death penalty? and to polygamy? and to divorce?


But if the law of Moses allowed for sinful practices, as you seem to believe, how could obeying it be a means to aid in the elimination of sinning?

Tom and Scott, do you believe the law of Moses was given to help the Jews obey the 10Cs? The law of Moses explained how to obey the law of God. To break one of the laws of Moses was to break the law of God. Here's how Sister White put it:

PP 310, 311, 364, 603
The minds of the people, blinded and debased by slavery and heathenism, were not prepared to appreciate fully the far-reaching principles of God's ten precepts. That the obligations of the Decalogue might be more fully understood and enforced, additional precepts were given, illustrating and applying the principles of the Ten Commandments. These laws were called judgments, both because they were framed in infinite wisdom and equity and because the magistrates were to give judgment according to them. Unlike the Ten Commandments, they were delivered privately to Moses, who was to communicate them to the people. {PP 310.1}

These laws were to be recorded by Moses, and carefully treasured as the foundation of the national law, and, with the ten precepts which they were given to illustrate, the condition of the fulfillment of God's promises to Israel. {PP 311.3}

But He did not stop with giving them the precepts of the Decalogue. The people had shown themselves so easily led astray that He would leave no door of temptation unguarded. Moses was commanded to write, as God should bid him, judgments and laws giving minute instruction as to what was required. These directions relating to the duty of the people to God, to one another, and to the stranger were only the principles of the Ten Commandments amplified and given in a specific manner, that none need err. They were designed to guard the sacredness of the ten precepts engraved on the tables of stone. {PP 364.1}

The government of Israel was administered in the name and by the authority of God. The work of Moses, of the seventy elders, of the rulers and judges, was simply to enforce the laws that God had given; they had no authority to legislate for the nation. This was, and continued to be, the condition of Israel's existence as a nation. From age to age men inspired by God were sent to instruct the people and to direct in the enforcement of the laws. {PP 603.1}

Are you saying God "winked at sin" by making it a part of the law of Moses?


Since slavery was part of Jewish culture God commanded them to treat their slaves with kindness and compassion.


Do you mean, then, that they were sinning ignorantly, that they were unaware they were sinning when they were obeying the law of Moses, that God did not count them guilty because they were obeying the law of Moses?


All the definitions of sin in the Bible boil down to "sin is the transgression of God's law." Here's how Sister White saw it:

CON 75
The apostle gives us the true definition of sin. "Sin is the transgression of the law." {Con 75.2}

FW 117
John says, "Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law; for sin is the transgression of the law" (1 John 3:4). Here we have the true definition of sin; it is "the transgression of the law." {FW 117.2}

GC 493
Our only definition of sin is that given in the word of God; it is "the transgression of the law;" it is the outworking of a principle at war with the great law of love which is the foundation of the divine government. {GC 492.2}

OHC 141
What is to bring the sinner to the knowledge of his sins unless he knows what sin is? The only definition of sin in the Word of God is given us in 1 John 3:4. "Sin is the transgression of the law." {OHC 141.3}

7BC 951
"Sin is the transgression of the law." This is the only definition of sin. Without the law there can be no transgression. "By the law is the knowledge of sin." The standard of righteousness is exceeding broad, prohibiting every evil thing (MS 27, 1899). {7BC 951.3}


Yes, of course, it is better to set slaves free, to help them succeed on the outside. But my point is - it was not a sin to obey the law of Moses, to have slaves in accordance with the law of Moses.

I think you misunderstood both Rosangela's point and my comment. Her point is that the fact that the Mosaic law gives counsel in regards to something does not mean the thing of which it is giving counsel is not a sin. She gave Paul's advice regarding slavery as an example. The fact that Paul gave advice as to how to treat a slave does not mean Paul was implying that slavery is not a sin.

MM, I suggest just sticking to what is actually said. For example, saying that God "allowed certain practices" does not mean the same thing as saying that God "accommodated sinning." If you don't see the difference between these two expressions, play it safe, and go with what was said.

Do you disagree with the idea that God allowed certain practices because of the hardness of their hearts?



No. Saying that sin is transgression of the moral law is an orthogonal concept.



I explained how by saying:

The law of Moses was an accommodation of an ignorant, stiff-necked people, which you must agree with, since I read you saying this in a recent post.

The law of Moses allowed divorce because of the hardness of their hearts. Divorce did not become wrong at the Sermon on the Mount. It was always wrong. Remarrying after divorcing one's spouse for some other reason than adultery did not become adultery at the Sermon on the Mount.

Right!! That's it!

Slavery was a part of Jewish culture. God was first dealing with the issue of treating slaves in a Christ-like way. Later (had they been willing) He would have taught them that having slaves at all was wrong.

Hi MM,

Where in Moses’ law does it require men to have slaves?



This sounds like you think that the Law of Moses was the only revelation of right and wrong that existed. Do you suppose these people had a conscience where the Holy Spirit communicated to them? They were ignorant and they were sinning, but I’m not sure they were ignorantly sinning. They must have known that they wouldn’t like it if it were themselves or someone they loved being enslaved. Therefore they must have known that slavery wasn’t the loving thing to do. Therefore they must have had at least a gut feeling that it was wrong to do something to others that you wouldn’t want them to do to you.

You see my point?

scott

Tom, please show me from the Bible or the SOP where God describes to the Jews in the law of Moses how to practice certain sinful practices. Thank you. By the way, quoting the SOP where God never sanctioned polygamy does not address my request. So, please post a quote which clearly says God commanded the Jews through the law of Moses how to practice certain sinful practices.