Yes, I saw that. I've reiterated your point about the NT.

Rosangela, do you believe Jews who obeyed the law of Moses where guilty of sinning?

Tom, I still don't know what you believe. Do you believe Jews who obeyed the law of Moses where guilty of sinning? Was it a sin to have slaves in accordance with the law of Moses? Was it a sin to have more than one wife in accordance with the law of Moses?

Here's what is said about the law of Moses:

He then came still closer to His people, who were so readily led astray, and would not leave them with merely the ten precepts of the Decalogue. He commanded Moses to write, as He should bid him, judgments and laws, giving minute directions in regard to what He required them to perform, and thereby guarded the ten precepts which He had engraved upon the tables of stone. These specific directions and requirements were given to draw erring man to the obedience of the moral law, which he is so prone to transgress. {SR 148.2}

That the obligations of the Decalogue might be more fully understood and enforced, additional precepts were given, illustrating and applying the principles of the Ten Commandments. These laws were called judgments, both because they were framed in infinite wisdom and equity and because the magistrates were to give judgment according to them. Unlike the Ten Commandments, they were delivered privately to Moses, who was to communicate them to the people. {PP 310.1}

These laws were to be recorded by Moses, and carefully treasured as the foundation of the national law, and, with the ten precepts which they were given to illustrate, the condition of the fulfillment of God's promises to Israel. {PP 311.3}

The definite directions which the Lord gave to Moses in regard to the duty of his people to one another, and to the stranger, are the principles of the ten commandments simplified, and given in a definite manner that they need not err. {3SG 299.3}

Where shall we find laws more noble, pure, and just, than are exhibited on the statute books wherein is recorded the instruction given to Moses for the children of Israel? Through all time these laws are to be perpetuated, that the character of God's people may be formed after the divine similitude. The law is a wall of protection to those who are obedient to God's precepts. {FE 393.2}

Hi MM,

Tom, Rosangela, and I have all said that slavery and polygamy are sins. In other words those who did those things are sinning. Do you think that the law gave them permission to sin or that the law exposed the sin in their heart?

scott

That is the same thing I asked about slavery!




MM seems to think that if the OT law didn't forbade something then that something isn't sin.

scott

Mike, do you believe Christians who obeyed the instructions of Paul in Eph. 6:9 and Col. 4:1 were guilty of sinning?

Neither. The law of Moses was given to help the Jews obey the law of God. Obeying the law of Moses resulted in obeying the law of God.


On the contrary, I believe everything God included in the law of Moses helps them obey the law of God. The law of Moses did not forbid or condemn slavery or polygamy; instead, it permitted them to be practiced in a lawful manner, thus, forbidding practicing them in unlawful ways.

No. Do you? Tom and Scott seem to believe obeying certain aspects of the law of Moses involved sinning - Do you think it did?

Ephesians
6:5 Servants, be obedient to them that are [your] masters according to the flesh, with fear and trembling, in singleness of your heart, as unto Christ;
6:6 Not with eyeservice, as menpleasers; but as the servants of Christ, doing the will of God from the heart;
6:7 With good will doing service, as to the Lord, and not to men:
6:8 Knowing that whatsoever good thing any man doeth, the same shall he receive of the Lord, whether [he be] bond or free.
6:9 And, ye masters, do the same things unto them, forbearing threatening: knowing that your Master also is in heaven; neither is there respect of persons with him.

Colossians
3:22 Servants, obey in all things [your] masters according to the flesh; not with eyeservice, as menpleasers; but in singleness of heart, fearing God:
3:23 And whatsoever ye do, do [it] heartily, as to the Lord, and not unto men;
3:24 Knowing that of the Lord ye shall receive the reward of the inheritance: for ye serve the Lord Christ.
3:25 But he that doeth wrong shall receive for the wrong which he hath done: and there is no respect of persons.
4:1 Masters, give unto [your] servants that which is just and equal; knowing that ye also have a Master in heaven.

So, in your opinion, polygamy and slavery are not sins and there is a lawful way to practice them?