Rosangela, it was not sinful for Jews to have slaves and more than one wife in accordance with the law of Moses. It was only sin if done differently than outlined in the law of Moses.

Is it really my opinion since it was God who included them in the law of Moses, especially in light of what it says in the SOP posted above about the law of Moses?

Mike, you said,



and



In which way having slaves and more than one wife helped them obey the law of God?

In the way described in the SOP quotes above. The quotes are very clear and specific. There is nothing vague or obscure about it.

What is your answer to the question I posed to you?

This obviously does not refer to all the commandments of the law of Moses, but just to some.

About polygamy, Jesus said, "Because of the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept" (Mark 10:5).

There is a huge difference between a commandment given to illustrate and apply the principles of the ten commandments and a commandment given because of the hardness of heart of the people.


That the Jews were guilty of sinning ignorantly, and the law of Moses sought to minimize the bad consequences of their sinning.

About slavery in the NT, for instance, Ellen White writes:

"It was not the apostle's work to overturn arbitrarily or suddenly the established order of society. To attempt this would be to prevent the success of the gospel. But he taught principles which struck at the very foundation of slavery, and which, if carried into effect, would surely undermine the whole system." {RH, December 14, 1911 par. 20}

The same is true about slavery in the OT. Instead of forbidding the practice, God chose to gradually undermine it.

Yes, and the same principle would apply to all errors or sins that the Israelites were practicing. That is, the principles which God was teaching them struck at the very foundation of every false idea or practice the Israelites had. Had they simply minded their Teacher, all would have been well.

The whole OC was designed to lead them to Christ . . . one step at a time!

The principles behind the 10C are the very love and character of God. Jesus is the full expression of God's character (God's law). Therefore the laws of Moses were just a step to lead us to Christ.

scott

Do you have an inspired quote to substantiate your claim that Jews were "guilty of sinning" obeying the laws of Moses regulating having slaves or having more than one wife?

Besides divorce, polygamy, slavery, and capital punishment what else do you believe the Jews were guilty of doing obeying the law of Moses that violated the law of God?

Perhaps these ones:

"God has not sanctioned polygamy in a single instance. It is contrary to His will. He knew that the happiness of man would be destroyed by it." {SR 76.1}

"God gave the man one wife. Had he deemed it best for man to have more than one wife, he could as easily have given him two; but he sanctioned no such thing. Wherever polygamy is practised, it is against our Heavenly Father's wise arrangement. Under this practise the race degenerates, and all that makes married life elevated and ennobling is blasted." {YI, August 10, 1899 par. 5}

"David afterward married Abigail. This was not according to the original plan of God; it was in direct opposition to his design, that a man should have more than one wife. David was already the husband of Ahinoam. The gospel condemns the practice of polygamy. The custom of the nations of David's time had perverted his judgment and influenced his actions. Great men have erred greatly in following the practices of the world. The study of everyone should be to know what is the will of God and what saith the word of the Lord. The bitter result of this practice of marrying many wives was permitted to be sorely felt throughout all the life of David." {ST, October 26, 1888 par. 15}

"One false step leads to another. Solomon's alliance with heathen nations was followed by evils which led the children of Israel to violate the law of God. The people became contaminated with the principles and practices of the heathen. Polygamy was introduced into Palestine." {ST, November 26, 1896 par. 8}

Is your belief that there is a right way to practice polygamy and that polygamy practiced in the right way is not a sin? In this case, which is the right way?