This has been cited several times as well.



Given that polygamy is contrary to God's will, and a violation of His law, then if God allowed it, then it follows that He allowed them to do something contrary to His will. Right? The same can be said for divorce and slavery.

Tom, we posted at the same time.

Jinx!

(You can wiki this if this saying's not familiar to you; I'd be surprised if it were).

Are you looking for a statement in the Bible that says, "Polygamy is a sin and God allowed Israel to sin in the Old Covenant"?

That is ridiculous. Imagine taking that position on 1844. Some NT writer would have had to name Ellen White, and give us the date from the Roman calendar. The fact that God put truth in place to stop the practice and the fact that God created man with one wife is good enough for me to prove that any alteration from God's will is sin and even though God is not in the business of wiping out sinners, but wooing them through love doesn’t make his non violent methods point to Him condoning practices that hurt others.

scott

Indeed, I was not familiar with the saying.

We used to say it as kids. Whoever said it first won. The other person couldn't speak until something was done, I can't remember, maybe something as simple as the first person saying, "Ok, you can talk now."

Jesus isn't saying, "God compromised and accommodated sinful practices by including them in the law of Moses." Do you believe, especially in light of the all SOP quotes I posted earlier on t his thread describing the function and purpose of the law of Moses, that God, because of the sin-hardened Jews, compromised and accommodated some of their sinful practices by including them in the law of Moses? If so, to what end? Why would God compromise?

At what point did it become a sin for a brother to marry his sister? The point is - The introduction of sin changed the rules of engagement drastically. No pun intended. God accommodated polygamy, divorce, slavery, and capital punishment in the law of Moses for good reasons. The idea that God included them in the law of Moses fully intending to wean the Jews from them later on is unbiblical. Here's what God said about them:

Deuteronomy
4:1 Now therefore hearken, O Israel, unto the statutes and unto the judgments, which I teach you, for to do [them], that ye may live, and go in and possess the land which the LORD God of your fathers giveth you.
4:2 Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish [ought] from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you.

Deuteronomy
7:9 Know therefore that the LORD thy God, he [is] God, the faithful God, which keepeth covenant and mercy with them that love him and keep his commandments to a thousand generations;
7:10 And repayeth them that hate him to their face, to destroy them: he will not be slack to him that hateth him, he will repay him to his face.
7:11 Thou shalt therefore keep the commandments, and the statutes, and the judgments, which I command thee this day, to do them.

Deuteronomy
12:32 What thing soever I command you, observe to do it: thou shalt not add thereto, nor diminish from it.

In the law of Moses there is a provision in case of divorce. But what does God say about divorce, still in the OT, 400 years before Christ?

Malachi 2:16 "For the LORD God of Israel says that He hates divorce"

People are accommodated, not practices. God accommodated an ignorant, stiff-necked people. The writ of divorce is a perfect example of this. Because of the hardness of their heart, God permitted them to have divorce. But this was never God's will. God has always hated divorce.