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Re: Why is there suffering?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#103271
09/28/08 05:12 PM
09/28/08 05:12 PM
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OP
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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Do see a difference between the suffering you described above and the suffering I described? The reason I ask is because your response to my post makes me wonder if you think all suffering is the same. If you feel the types of suffering we are talking about above are worlds apart, then please help me understand how your response addresses what I posted. Thank you. No, I wasn't addressing that. What you wrote wasn't precise, which is what I was addressing. It could be all the points I made were moot, and that you're being more precise would answer each objection I made, but it's also possible there was something more substantive involved, which is why I brought up the points. You would have to decide if you thought there was something meaningfully different.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Why is there suffering?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#103272
09/28/08 06:03 PM
09/28/08 06:03 PM
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OP
Active Member 2012
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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The possibility of sin and sinning existed before Lucifer sinned. So, he couldn't have created sin if the possibility existed before he sinned. This doesn't make sense. The possibility of a light bulb existed before Edison, but that doesn't mean he didn't create it. The possibility of the theory of relativity existed before Einstein, but that doesn't mean he didn't create it. The possibility of Beethoven's Fifth Symphony existed before Beethoven, but that doesn't mean he didn't create that. The Spirit of Prophecy tells us that Satan is the "author of sin." What does "author" mean? It means it's his creation. What do you think "author" means, if not this? M: If Satan is responsible for all the sins committed by sinners, why, then, are sinners judged, condemned, punished, and destroyed for the sins they commit?
T: Satan has a shared responsibility.
M:Not in the sins of the unsaved. That is, he will be punished for the sins committed by the unsaved. The wicked are also punished for these sins. That's why it's a shared responsibility. "He could withdraw His protection, and that could result in suffering." Can people experience suffering while God is protecting them? Sure. Job shows this. What is He protecting them from? According to the SOP, there are thousands of things. Are there other reasons why people experience suffering, reasons unrelated to what God does or does not do? This seems very vague. People suffer from indigestion. That seems unrelated to something God does. Does this address your question? Regarding your question of the gun, it is the intent of the purpose that decides. It's good that you're bringing this up, as it is 180% opposed to your previous argument regarding God's not bearing responsibility because bullets don't have rights. So what is God's intention? God is not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to a knowledge of the truth. He would have all men repent. He takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked. Yet, in spite of this, sometimes God's wishes are not respected, and His will is opposed. People tragically resist the Holy Spirit, and God will eventually give them up. Before the Flood, the forces of nature above and below the earth were the same as before A&E sinned. No way! Sin introduced tremendous changes! Sin, the blight of sin, defaces and mars our world, and agonized creation groans under the iniquity of the inhabitants thereof. (2MR 308) This is paraphrasing Romans 8:22 For we know that the whole creation groaneth and travaileth in pain together until now. Eating the forbidden fruit did not in the least alter the forces of nature. My word, what an assertion! It changed all sorts of things. Just to mention one, before sin do you think lions were carnivorous? I do not believe the forces involved in the Flood were being unnaturally held in check by God - as if what happened during the Flood would have happened naturally the moment A&E sinned. Instead, I believe God employed the forces of nature to accomplish what happened during the Flood. Your sidestepping the argument here. I demonstrated from three different sources that the waters which caused the flood came from below the earth's crust. They have been under tremendous pressure to have caused the water to go from beneath the earth to up in the atmosphere. Do you disagree with this? At any rate, our differences are caused not by the evidence, but by our views of God's character. You see God as acting in certain ways, so interpret things to correspond to your view of God. I plead guilty to doing the same thing. What causes our differences is how we perceive God to be.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Why is there suffering?
[Re: Tom]
#103427
10/06/08 03:42 PM
10/06/08 03:42 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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M: Tom, suffering and death would not exist 1) if Satan had not rebelled in heaven, 2) if Satan had not deceived Eve, 3) if Adam had not resolved to share Eve's fate, and 4) if God had not implemented the plan of salvation. Do you agree?
T: No, not quite. If Satan had rebelled, but not humans, there would have been suffering, but not for human beings, except in an empathetic way, assuming they didn't sin. If Adam had not resolved to share Eve's fate, he still would have suffered, because he loved her. It would certainly have limited tremendously the suffering of the rest of humanity, however. If God had not implemented the plan of salvation, there would have been suffering and death for Adam and Eve, but no other humans, since that would have been the end of the human race.
M: Do see a difference between the suffering you described above and the suffering I described? The reason I ask is because your response to my post makes me wonder if you think all suffering is the same. If you feel the types of suffering we are talking about above are worlds apart, then please help me understand how your response addresses what I posted. Thank you.
T: No, I wasn't addressing that. What you wrote wasn't precise, which is what I was addressing. It could be all the points I made were moot, and that you're being more precise would answer each objection I made, but it's also possible there was something more substantive involved, which is why I brought up the points. You would have to decide if you thought there was something meaningfully different. In other words, suffering and death, as we know it, exist because 1) Adam resolved to share Eve's fate, and 2) God implemented the plan of salvation. So, not all suffering and death occur because of sin and Satan. Sometimes it happens because of the plan of salvation. That is, sometimes God uses His "workmen" (i.e. trials and tribulation) to polish people. Even Jesus endured this polishing process. Such polishing causes suffering. Sometimes it ends in death. Listen: The trials of life are God’s workmen, to remove the impurities and roughness from our character. Their hewing, squaring, and chiseling, their burnishing and polishing, is a painful process; it is hard to be pressed down to the grinding wheel. But the stone is brought forth prepared to fill its place in the heavenly temple. Upon no useless material does the Master bestow such careful, thorough work. Only His precious stones are polished after the similitude of a palace. (MB 10) It is through much tribulation that we are to enter the kingdom of God. Our Saviour was tried in every possible way, and yet He triumphed in God continually. It is our privilege to be strong in the strength of God under all circumstances and to glory in the cross of Christ. (AG 90) They are prepared to be used in every emergency, to fill important positions of trust, and to accomplish the grand purposes for which their powers were given them. God takes men upon trial; He proves them on the right hand and on the left, and thus they are educated, trained, disciplined. Jesus, our Redeemer, man’s representative and head, endured this testing process. (4T 86)
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Re: Why is there suffering?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#103430
10/06/08 04:20 PM
10/06/08 04:20 PM
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OP
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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Yes, God uses suffering, and other evils, to be a blessing in the working out of trials, to develop empathy for others, and so forth. But the fact that God uses evils for good, does not make Him responsible for the evils He uses. It was generally believed by the Jews that sin is punished in this life. Every affliction was regarded as the penalty of some wrongdoing, either of the sufferer himself or of his parents. It is true that all suffering results from the transgression of God's law, but this truth had become perverted. Satan, the author of sin and all its results, had led men to look upon disease and death as proceeding from God,--as punishment arbitrarily inflicted on account of sin. Hence one upon whom some great affliction or calamity had fallen had the additional burden of being regarded as a great sinner.(DA 471) A couple of points here. First of all, Satan is the author of sin and all its results. Is suffering and death the result of sin? Yes, it is. So who is responsible? Satan, the author of sin and all its results. Now if there were any question as to whether suffering is the result of sin, this is also addressed: "It is true that all suffering results from the transgression of God's law ..." All suffering results from sin. Who is the author of sin? Satan. So, once again, we see that Satan is responsible for all suffering, since he is responsible for sin, and all suffering is the result of sin. Now Satan isn't the only one who sins, so while he is indirectly responsible for all suffering, those who sin are responsible for suffering as well. However, since God does not sin, and "all suffering" is the result of sin, God is responsible for none of it.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Why is there suffering?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#103432
10/06/08 07:12 PM
10/06/08 07:12 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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M: The possibility of sin and sinning existed before Lucifer sinned. So, he couldn't have created sin if the possibility existed before he sinned.
T: This doesn't make sense. The possibility of a light bulb existed before Edison, but that doesn't mean he didn't create it. The possibility of the theory of relativity existed before Einstein, but that doesn't mean he didn't create it. The possibility of Beethoven's Fifth Symphony existed before Beethoven, but that doesn't mean he didn't create that.
The Spirit of Prophecy tells us that Satan is the "author of sin." What does "author" mean? It means it's his creation. What do you think "author" means, if not this? Ellen explains what she means: “. . . Satan, the prince of evil, the author of sin, the first transgressor of God's holy law.” {GC x.1} M: If Satan is responsible for all the sins committed by sinners, why, then, are sinners judged, condemned, punished, and destroyed for the sins they commit?
T: Satan has a shared responsibility.
M:Not in the sins of the unsaved. That is, he will [not] be punished for the sins committed by the unsaved.
T: The wicked are also punished for these sins. That's why it's a shared responsibility. Only Satan suffers and dies for the sins of the saved. He does not suffer and die for the sins of the unsaved. They will suffer and die for their own sins. True, Satan will suffer and die for tempting the unsaved to sin, but that is not the same thing as suffering and dying for the sins they committed. He will suffer and die with 1) the sins he tempted the saved to commit, and 2) the sins they committed. M: "He could withdraw His protection, and that could result in suffering." Can people experience suffering while God is protecting them?
T: Sure. Job shows this. People suffer while God is protecting them? What good then is His protection? And, how does one differentiate between suffering with God’s protection and suffering without His protection? M: What is He protecting them from?
T: According to the SOP, there are thousands of things. Thousands of “arbitrary” (using your definition) things? Or, thousands of cause and effect things? M: Are there other reasons why people experience suffering, reasons unrelated to what God does or does not do?
T: This seems very vague. People suffer from indigestion. That seems unrelated to something God does. Does this address your question? So, indigestion is an example of suffering unrelated to what God does or does not do. Are there times when God intervenes and prevents indigestion? Or, does He always, under all circumstances, “allow” it to happen? In other words, people experience indigestion because God chooses not to intervene. He chose to allow them to experience the natural cause and effect consequences. Either way, God must choose, and people experience the results of His choice. Thus, nothing is entirely the result of natural consequences. Everything depends on what God does or does not do. T: God often presents Himself as doing that which He permits. There are many examples of this.
M: When a murderer uses a gun to kill someone, do we conclude the gun is what murdered the person? Or, do we conclude the guy who pulled the trigger is the one killed the person? In the same way, when God uses a "weapon" to punish and kill sinners, we must conclude God is the one killed them. God's weapons are many and varied.
T: Regarding your question of the gun, it is the intent of the purpose that decides. It's good that you're bringing this up, as it is 180% opposed to your previous argument regarding God's not bearing responsibility because bullets don't have rights. Bullets do not have rights. God can intervene and prevent bullets from killing people. People have rights; therefore, God cannot force them to not want to kill someone. He can, however, intervene and prevent them from killing people. For example, God can stop keeping them alive before they pull the trigger. The point is – God leaves nothing to choice or chance. He is intimately involved in everything that happens and does not happen. M: Before the Flood, the forces of nature above and below the earth were the same as before A&E sinned.
T: No way! Sin introduced tremendous changes! “Sin, the blight of sin, defaces and mars our world, and agonized creation groans under the iniquity of the inhabitants thereof. (2MR 308) This is paraphrasing Romans 8:22. For we know that the whole creation groaneth and travaileth in pain together until now. Listen: In the days of Noah a double curse was resting upon the earth in consequence of Adam's transgression and of the murder committed by Cain. Yet this had not greatly changed the face of nature. There were evident tokens of decay, but the earth was still rich and beautiful in the gifts of God's providence. {PP 90.1} The point is - Eating the forbidden fruit did not radically change nature. The Flood is what radically changed nature. The question is - Who or what caused the Flood? M: Eating the forbidden fruit did not in the least alter the forces of nature.
T: My word, what an assertion! It changed all sorts of things. Just to mention one, before sin do you think lions were carnivorous? Lions were not carnivorous before sin. But neither was man. Long, sharp canine teeth evolved over a period of time. But the forces of nature I’m referring to did not change when man sinned. That is, fire and water did not suddenly become pressurized and dangerous. Eating the forbidden fruit did not directly cause any changes to nature itself. There is absolutely no direct connection between this sin and the forces of nature employed in the Flood. True, it is because of sin that God employed the forces of nature to destroy the world and her inhabitants with water. True, God gives Satan permission to pervert nature, but only within the limits and restrictions He establishes. Satan cannot do anything to man or nature without God's permission. Nor does God allow the Devil to do something which He must then work to counteract to prevent destruction from occurring. For example, God did not allow Satan to pressurize water only to turn around and have to work to prevent it from gushing out and killing people. M: I do not believe the forces involved in the Flood were being unnaturally held in check by God - as if what happened during the Flood would have happened naturally the moment A&E sinned. Instead, I believe God employed the forces of nature to accomplish what happened during the Flood.
T: Your sidestepping the argument here. I demonstrated from three different sources that the waters which caused the flood came from below the earth's crust. They have been under tremendous pressure to have caused the water to go from beneath the earth to up in the atmosphere. Do you disagree with this? I do not believe the water was under pressure before A&E ate the forbidden fruit. Nor do I believe it became pressurized because they ate the forbidden fruit. I have no way of knowing if the water was pressurized. Neither do you. We know why the Flood happened, but not how. It happened because God made it happen. How the water gushed from above and below the earth has not been explained. T: At any rate, our differences are caused not by the evidence, but by our views of God's character. You see God as acting in certain ways, so interpret things to correspond to your view of God. I plead guilty to doing the same thing. What causes our differences is how we perceive God to be. We both agree God has employed nature, angels, and humans to carry out His purposes. For example: God will use His enemies as instruments to punish those who have followed their own pernicious ways whereby the truth of God has been misrepresented, misjudged, and dishonored. {LDE 242.3} The destruction that befell the northern kingdom was a direct judgment from Heaven. The Assyrians were merely the instruments that God used to carry out His purpose. {PK 291.3} The bowels of the earth were the Lord's arsenal, from which he drew forth the weapons he employed in the destruction of the old world. . . Since the flood, God has used both water and fire in the earth as his agents to destroy wicked cities. {3SG 82.2} A single angel destroyed all the first-born of the Egyptians and filled the land with mourning. When David offended against God by numbering the people, one angel caused that terrible destruction by which his sin was punished. The same destructive power exercised by holy angels when God commands, will be exercised by evil angels when He permits. There are forces now ready, and only waiting the divine permission, to spread desolation everywhere. {GC 614.2}
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Re: Why is there suffering?
[Re: Tom]
#103433
10/06/08 08:25 PM
10/06/08 08:25 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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Yes, God uses suffering, and other evils, to be a blessing in the working out of trials, to develop empathy for others, and so forth. But the fact that God uses evils for good, does not make Him responsible for the evils He uses. It was generally believed by the Jews that sin is punished in this life. Every affliction was regarded as the penalty of some wrongdoing, either of the sufferer himself or of his parents. It is true that all suffering results from the transgression of God's law, but this truth had become perverted. Satan, the author of sin and all its results, had led men to look upon disease and death as proceeding from God,--as punishment arbitrarily inflicted on account of sin. Hence one upon whom some great affliction or calamity had fallen had the additional burden of being regarded as a great sinner.(DA 471) A couple of points here. First of all, Satan is the author of sin and all its results. Is suffering and death the result of sin? Yes, it is. So who is responsible? Satan, the author of sin and all its results. Now if there were any question as to whether suffering is the result of sin, this is also addressed: "It is true that all suffering results from the transgression of God's law ..." All suffering results from sin. Who is the author of sin? Satan. So, once again, we see that Satan is responsible for all suffering, since he is responsible for sin, and all suffering is the result of sin. Now Satan isn't the only one who sins, so while he is indirectly responsible for all suffering, those who sin are responsible for suffering as well. However, since God does not sin, and "all suffering" is the result of sin, God is responsible for none of it. Not true. There are times when God Himself inflicts punishment and death. Listen: God delights in mercy, and He manifests His compassion before He inflicts His judgments. He teaches Israel to spare the people of Edom, before requiring them to destroy the inhabitants of Canaan. {PP 423.2} God will bring you over the ground again and again until with humble heart and subdued mind you bear the test that He inflicts and are wholly sanctified to His service and work. {4T 214.1} Not all suffering is the result of sin. Sometimes God causes or permits suffering to serve a higher purpose. The Devil does not cooperate with God in this endeavor. Nor does God depend on the Devil to cause suffering so that He can lead people to higher places.
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Re: Why is there suffering?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#103437
10/06/08 11:15 PM
10/06/08 11:15 PM
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OP
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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1.All suffering results from sin. 2.God does not sin. 3.Therefore God does not cause suffering.
Which of 1, 2, or 3 are you saying is not true?
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Why is there suffering?
[Re: Tom]
#103438
10/06/08 11:17 PM
10/06/08 11:17 PM
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OP
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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Not all suffering is the result of sin. Ok, it looks like you are saying 1 (that all suffering results from sin) is not true. This comes from the following: It is true that all suffering results from the transgression of God's law. I underlined this for you. It's from the DA 471 quote. Now you will agree that sin is the transgression of God's law, right? Then it follows that all suffering results from sin.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Why is there suffering?
[Re: Tom]
#103495
10/09/08 02:02 PM
10/09/08 02:02 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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Now you will agree that sin is the transgression of God's law, right? Then it follows that all suffering results from sin. Case in point - Job. His losses and suffering were not the result of any sinning he was guilty of doing.
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Re: Why is there suffering?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#103496
10/09/08 02:03 PM
10/09/08 02:03 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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M: The possibility of sin and sinning existed before Lucifer sinned. So, he couldn't have created sin if the possibility existed before he sinned.
T: This doesn't make sense. The possibility of a light bulb existed before Edison, but that doesn't mean he didn't create it. The possibility of the theory of relativity existed before Einstein, but that doesn't mean he didn't create it. The possibility of Beethoven's Fifth Symphony existed before Beethoven, but that doesn't mean he didn't create that.
The Spirit of Prophecy tells us that Satan is the "author of sin." What does "author" mean? It means it's his creation. What do you think "author" means, if not this? Ellen explains what she means: “. . . Satan, the prince of evil, the author of sin, the first transgressor of God's holy law.” {GC x.1} M: If Satan is responsible for all the sins committed by sinners, why, then, are sinners judged, condemned, punished, and destroyed for the sins they commit?
T: Satan has a shared responsibility.
M:Not in the sins of the unsaved. That is, he will [not] be punished for the sins committed by the unsaved.
T: The wicked are also punished for these sins. That's why it's a shared responsibility. Only Satan suffers and dies for the sins of the saved. He does not suffer and die for the sins of the unsaved. They will suffer and die for their own sins. True, Satan will suffer and die for tempting the unsaved to sin, but that is not the same thing as suffering and dying for the sins they committed. He will suffer and die with 1) the sins he tempted the saved to commit, and 2) the sins they committed. M: "He could withdraw His protection, and that could result in suffering." Can people experience suffering while God is protecting them?
T: Sure. Job shows this. People suffer while God is protecting them? What good then is His protection? And, how does one differentiate between suffering with God’s protection and suffering without His protection? M: What is He protecting them from?
T: According to the SOP, there are thousands of things. Thousands of “arbitrary” (using your definition) things? Or, thousands of cause and effect things? M: Are there other reasons why people experience suffering, reasons unrelated to what God does or does not do?
T: This seems very vague. People suffer from indigestion. That seems unrelated to something God does. Does this address your question? So, indigestion is an example of suffering unrelated to what God does or does not do. Are there times when God intervenes and prevents indigestion? Or, does He always, under all circumstances, “allow” it to happen? In other words, people experience indigestion because God chooses not to intervene. He chose to allow them to experience the natural cause and effect consequences. Either way, God must choose, and people experience the results of His choice. Thus, nothing is entirely the result of natural consequences. Everything depends on what God does or does not do. T: God often presents Himself as doing that which He permits. There are many examples of this.
M: When a murderer uses a gun to kill someone, do we conclude the gun is what murdered the person? Or, do we conclude the guy who pulled the trigger is the one killed the person? In the same way, when God uses a "weapon" to punish and kill sinners, we must conclude God is the one killed them. God's weapons are many and varied.
T: Regarding your question of the gun, it is the intent of the purpose that decides. It's good that you're bringing this up, as it is 180% opposed to your previous argument regarding God's not bearing responsibility because bullets don't have rights. Bullets do not have rights. God can intervene and prevent bullets from killing people. People have rights; therefore, God cannot force them to not want to kill someone. He can, however, intervene and prevent them from killing people. For example, God can stop keeping them alive before they pull the trigger. The point is – God leaves nothing to choice or chance. He is intimately involved in everything that happens and does not happen. M: Before the Flood, the forces of nature above and below the earth were the same as before A&E sinned.
T: No way! Sin introduced tremendous changes! “Sin, the blight of sin, defaces and mars our world, and agonized creation groans under the iniquity of the inhabitants thereof. (2MR 308) This is paraphrasing Romans 8:22. For we know that the whole creation groaneth and travaileth in pain together until now. Listen: In the days of Noah a double curse was resting upon the earth in consequence of Adam's transgression and of the murder committed by Cain. Yet this had not greatly changed the face of nature. There were evident tokens of decay, but the earth was still rich and beautiful in the gifts of God's providence. {PP 90.1} The point is - Eating the forbidden fruit did not radically change nature. The Flood is what radically changed nature. The question is - Who or what caused the Flood? M: Eating the forbidden fruit did not in the least alter the forces of nature.
T: My word, what an assertion! It changed all sorts of things. Just to mention one, before sin do you think lions were carnivorous? Lions were not carnivorous before sin. But neither was man. Long, sharp canine teeth evolved over a period of time. But the forces of nature I’m referring to did not change when man sinned. That is, fire and water did not suddenly become pressurized and dangerous. Eating the forbidden fruit did not directly cause any changes to nature itself. There is absolutely no direct connection between this sin and the forces of nature employed in the Flood. True, it is because of sin that God employed the forces of nature to destroy the world and her inhabitants with water. True, God gives Satan permission to pervert nature, but only within the limits and restrictions He establishes. Satan cannot do anything to man or nature without God's permission. Nor does God allow the Devil to do something which He must then work to counteract to prevent destruction from occurring. For example, God did not allow Satan to pressurize water only to turn around and have to work to prevent it from gushing out and killing people. M: I do not believe the forces involved in the Flood were being unnaturally held in check by God - as if what happened during the Flood would have happened naturally the moment A&E sinned. Instead, I believe God employed the forces of nature to accomplish what happened during the Flood.
T: Your sidestepping the argument here. I demonstrated from three different sources that the waters which caused the flood came from below the earth's crust. They have been under tremendous pressure to have caused the water to go from beneath the earth to up in the atmosphere. Do you disagree with this? I do not believe the water was under pressure before A&E ate the forbidden fruit. Nor do I believe it became pressurized because they ate the forbidden fruit. I have no way of knowing if the water was pressurized. Neither do you. We know why the Flood happened, but not how. It happened because God made it happen. How the water gushed from above and below the earth has not been explained. T: At any rate, our differences are caused not by the evidence, but by our views of God's character. You see God as acting in certain ways, so interpret things to correspond to your view of God. I plead guilty to doing the same thing. What causes our differences is how we perceive God to be. We both agree God has employed nature, angels, and humans to carry out His purposes. For example: God will use His enemies as instruments to punish those who have followed their own pernicious ways whereby the truth of God has been misrepresented, misjudged, and dishonored. {LDE 242.3} The destruction that befell the northern kingdom was a direct judgment from Heaven. The Assyrians were merely the instruments that God used to carry out His purpose. {PK 291.3} The bowels of the earth were the Lord's arsenal, from which he drew forth the weapons he employed in the destruction of the old world. . . Since the flood, God has used both water and fire in the earth as his agents to destroy wicked cities. {3SG 82.2} A single angel destroyed all the first-born of the Egyptians and filled the land with mourning. When David offended against God by numbering the people, one angel caused that terrible destruction by which his sin was punished. The same destructive power exercised by holy angels when God commands, will be exercised by evil angels when He permits. There are forces now ready, and only waiting the divine permission, to spread desolation everywhere. {GC 614.2}
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Here is the link to this week's Sabbath School Lesson Study and Discussion Material: Click Here
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