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Re: What was nailed to the cross in Col 2:14?
[Re: asygo]
#103492
10/09/08 02:16 AM
10/09/08 02:16 AM
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What the OC was is widely misunderstood. That the covenant and promise of God are one and the same thing, is clearly seen from Gal.3:17, where it appears that to disannul the covenant would be to make void the promise. In Genesis 17 we read that God made a covenant with Abraham to give him the land of Canaan--and with it the whole world--for an everlasting possession; but Gal.3:18 says that God gave it to him by promise.
God's covenants with men can be nothing else than promises to them: "Who hath first given to Him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again? For of Him, and through Him, and to Him, are all things." Rom.11:35,36. It is so rare for men to do anything without expecting an equivalent, that theologians have taken it for granted that it is the same with God. So they begin their dissertations on God's covenant with the statement that a covenant is "a mutual agreement between two or more persons, to do or refrain from doing certain things." But God does not make bargains with men, because He knows that they could not fulfil their part.
After the flood God made a covenant with every beast of the earth, and with every fowl; but the beasts and the birds did not promise anything in return. Gen.9:9-16. They simply received the favor at the hand of God. That is all we can do. God promises us everything that we need, and more than we can ask or think, as a gift. We give Him ourselves, that is, nothing, and He gives us Himself, that is, everything.
That which makes all the trouble is that even when men are willing to recognize the Lord at all, they want to make bargains with Him. They want it to be a "mutual" affair--a transaction in which they will be considered as on a par with God. But whoever deals with God must deal with Him on His own terms, that is, on a basis of fact--that we have nothing and are nothing, and He has everything and is everything, and gives everything. This (above) is in regards to covenants as a whole. A covenant is a promise. Note the statement which the apostle makes when speaking of the two women, Hagar and Sarah: "These are the two covenants." So then the two covenants existed in every essential particular in the days of Abraham. Even so they do to-day; for the Scripture says now as well as then, "Cast out the bondwoman and her son." We see then that the two covenants are not matters of time, but of condition. Let no one flatter himself that he can not be under the old covenant, because the time for that is passed. The time for that is passed only in the sense that "the time past of our life may suffice us to have wrought the will of the Gentiles, when we walked in lasciviousness, lusts, excess of wine, revelings, banquetings, and abominable idolatries." 1Pet.4:3. This (above) deals with both covenants, pointing out that they are not a matter of time but of condition. Consider the situation: The people were in the bondage of sin; they had no power to break their chains; but the speaking of the law made no change in their condition; it introduced no new feature....
"Then did not God Himself lead them into bondage?"--Not by any means; since He did not induce them to make that covenant at Sinai. Four hundred and thirty years before that time He had made a covenant with Abraham, which was sufficient for all purposes. That covenant was confirmed in Christ, and, therefore, was a covenant from above. See John 8:23. It promised righteousness as a free gift of God through faith, and it included all nations. All the miracles that God had wrought in delivering the children of Israel from Egyptian bondage were but demonstrations of His power to deliver them and us from the bondage of sin.
Yes, the deliverance from Egypt was itself a demonstration not only of God's power, but also of His desire to lead them from the bondage of sin, that bondage in which the covenant from Sinai holds men, because Hagar, who is the covenant from Sinai, was an Egyptian. So when the people came to Sinai, God simply referred them to what He had already done, and then said, "Now therefore, if ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto Me above all people; for all the earth is Mine." Ex.19:5.
To what covenant did He refer?--Evidently to the one already in existence, His covenant with Abraham. If they would simply keep God's covenant, that is, God's promise,--keep the faith,--they would be a peculiar treasure unto God, for God, as the possessor of all the earth, was able to do with them all that He had promised.
The fact that they in their self-sufficiency rashly took the whole responsibility upon themselves, does not prove that God led them into making that covenant, but the contrary. He was leading them out of bondage, not into it, and the apostle plainly tells us that covenant from Sinai was nothing but bondage. This (above) deals with the essence of the Old Covenant, which is to, in self-sufficiency, take the responsibility upon oneself, or, as the SOP puts it, to seek to establish our own righteousness. In the New Covenant, on the other hand, we accept the righteousness of Christ. The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ.(PP 372) The following quotes deal with Waggoner's view on the Covenants being correct: Night before last I was shown that evidences in regard to the covenants were clear and convincing. Yourself, Brother Dan Jones, Brother Porter and others are spending your investigative powers for naught to produce a position on the covenants to vary from the position that Brother Waggoner has presented. (1888 Mat. 604) Since I made the statement last Sabbath that the view of the covenants as it had been taught by Brother Waggoner was truth, it seems that great relief has come to many minds.(1888 Mat. 623) In spite of these quotes, unfortunately (even among those who claim to accept the SOP) accept Waggoner's position as "truth." Sigh.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: What was nailed to the cross in Col 2:14?
[Re: asygo]
#103589
10/13/08 03:37 PM
10/13/08 03:37 PM
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M: Tom, not sinning from now on does not atone for past sins.
T: Of course not. Why are you making this point? Because you seem to think past sins can be simply ignored if sinners are at-one with God. M: Atonement is concerned with past sins.
T: Atonement is concerned with sinners, not sins (except incidentally). The issue is how to reconcile the sinner. Reconciling sinners involves dealing with past sins in both the intrinsic (personal) and forensic (punitive) sense. You seem to think if sinners start loving God and stop sinning that everything is okay.
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Re: What was nailed to the cross in Col 2:14?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#103590
10/13/08 03:45 PM
10/13/08 03:45 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
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This (above) deals with both covenants, pointing out that they are not a matter of time but of condition. Both are also commanded. That is, under the OC and the NC obedience to the law(s} was/is required. Under both the OC and the NC animal sacrifices were required. But this requirement was time dated. It pointed to and ended with the cross.
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Re: What was nailed to the cross in Col 2:14?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#103601
10/13/08 10:39 PM
10/13/08 10:39 PM
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M: Tom, not sinning from now on does not atone for past sins.
T: Of course not. Why are you making this point?
Because you seem to think past sins can be simply ignored if sinners are at-one with God. Here's how Waggoner puts it: No sceptic will deny that any man has the right and privilege of pardoning any offence committed against himself; then why cavil when God exercises the same right? Surely if He wishes to pardon the injury done Himself, He has the right, and more because He vindicates the integrity of His law by submitting in His own Person to the penalty which was due the sinner. "But the innocent suffered for the guilty." True, but the innocent Sufferer "gave himself" voluntarily, in order that He might in justice to His government do what His love prompted, namely, pass by the injury done to Himself as the Ruler of the universe.(emphasis mine) He "passes by" the injury done to Himself, something He has the right to do. Reconciling sinners involves dealing with past sins in both the intrinsic (personal) "Intrinsic" does not mean "personal." and forensic (punitive) sense. The law recognizes the justice of God in forgiving sin. There's not two separate issues that need to be taken care of, but one. The issue is how to reconcile the sinner to God. You seem to think if sinners start loving God and stop sinning that everything is okay. Yes, this is true. No one who loves God as Jesus commanded will be lost. That is, under the OC and the NC obedience to the law(s} was/is required. Under both the OC and the NC animal sacrifices were required. But this requirement was time dated. It pointed to and ended with the cross. I guess you're thinking of the OC when you say "It pointed to and ended with the cross." This looks to be missing the point, that it's not dependent upon condition and *not* on time. Note the statement which the apostle makes when speaking of the two women, Hagar and Sarah: "These are the two covenants." So then the two covenants existed in every essential particular in the days of Abraham. Even so they do to-day; for the Scripture says now as well as then, "Cast out the bondwoman and her son." We see then that the two covenants are not matters of time, but of condition. Let no one flatter himself that he can not be under the old covenant, because the time for that is passed.(The Glad Tidings)
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: What was nailed to the cross in Col 2:14?
[Re: Tom]
#103696
10/15/08 04:07 PM
10/15/08 04:07 PM
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He "passes by" the injury done to Himself, something He has the right to do. I agree with the quote you posted. God earned the right to pardon past sins because Jesus paid our sin debt of death. God cannot ignore past sins. “By His word God has bound Himself to execute the penalty of the law on all transgressors.” (6BC 1095) “In the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood, for death must come in consequence of man’s sin.” (CON 22) “Justice demands that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed. God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, met both these requirements. By dying in man’s stead, Christ exhausted the penalty and provided a pardon.” (1SM 340) The law recognizes the justice of God in forgiving sin. There's not two separate issues that need to be taken care of, but one. The issue is how to reconcile the sinner to God.
Law and justice do not require reconciliation. Instead, they demand obedience and death for disobedience. Reconciling sinners to God, on the other hand, involves several things - 1) a sin substitute, 2) eternal death, 3) atonement for past sins, 4) probation, 5) rebirth, 6) righteousness, and 7) restoration of paradise lost. M: That is, under the OC and the NC obedience to the law(s} was/is required. Under both the OC and the NC animal sacrifices were required. But this requirement was time dated. It pointed to and ended with the cross.
T: I guess you're thinking of the OC when you say "It pointed to and ended with the cross." This looks to be missing the point, that it's not dependent upon condition and *not* on time. The NC required animal sacrifices as well as the OC. This aspect of both covenants was timed dated. In both cases animal sacrifices ended at the cross. Animal sacrifices were not matters of condition. It was because of the sinfulness of men that God kept adding more and more laws and ordinances. In the beginning the law was simply love God and love each other. When A&E sinned, the law was expanded to meet man in his fallen state. Animal sacrifices were also added. More laws were added after the Flood, and still more laws were added at Sinai. After the cross, some laws were deleted, and other ordinances were added. Animal sacrifices were also deleted. Times have changed, but man is still sinful.
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Re: What was nailed to the cross in Col 2:14?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#103710
10/15/08 10:47 PM
10/15/08 10:47 PM
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T:He "passes by" the injury done to Himself, something He has the right to do.
MM:I agree with the quote you posted. God earned the right to pardon past sins because Jesus paid our sin debt of death. I don't understand why you wouldn't consider this assertion absurd; as if God had to earn the right to pardon sins! Tell me, please, how can you think the Master of the Universe, the Creator of all things, Jehovah God, above all, would need to earn the right to do anything? Law and justice do not require reconciliation. Yes they do. He hath shewed thee, O man, what is good; and what doth the LORD require of thee, but to do justly, and to love mercy, and to walk humbly with thy God? (Micah 6:8) Thus speaketh the LORD of hosts, saying, Execute true judgment, and shew mercy and compassions every man to his brother (Zech 7:9) The following is a wonderful explanation of what Biblical justice is all about: An important clue to Old Testament justice is found in how God responds to wrongdoing. When confronted by sin, God is described as angry, full of wrath, with words that connote heat, heavy breathing; like crime victims, God is understood to be angry. But the real story is that in spite of this wrongdoing, and in spite of the resulting anger, God never gives up. A place is recognized for anger in the face of wrongdoing, but God does not remain there: God moves through wrath to restoration. Restoration, not retribution, is the thrust of biblical justice.
The key is in God's intent for God's people, captured in the word "shalom." Shalom means peace, but more than what we mean by peace. It means people living in right relationship to one another - materially, socially, spiritually. The essence of crime is that it upsets shalom, making right relationships impossible. Crime, in the biblical view, is a wound that needs healing. That is why restitution, making things right, is found so often there. In fact, the word for making things right is the root word for shalom. (http://www.peaceworkmagazine.org/pwork/0499/049910.htm emphasis mine) Much more could be said about this. Perhaps later. The NC required animal sacrifices as well as the OC. The NC involves the sacrifice of Christ, not animals. This is explained in detail in the book of Hebrews. This aspect of both covenants was timed dated. In both cases animal sacrifices ended at the cross. Animal sacrifices were not matters of condition.
I pointed out, or Waggoner did, from what Paul wrote in Galatians 4, that the *covenants* are not matters of time, but of condition. Not animal sacrifices, but the covenants. It was because of the sinfulness of men that God kept adding more and more laws and ordinances. Because of man's unbelief. God tried more and more to help man. I basically agree with what you're saying here. When A&E sinned, the law was expanded to meet man in his fallen state. Animal sacrifices were also added. More laws were added after the Flood, and still more laws were added at Sinai. After the cross, some laws were deleted, and other ordinances were added. Animal sacrifices were also deleted. Times have changed, but man is still sinful. This isn't really dealing with my point. Here was the point: Note the statement which the apostle makes when speaking of the two women, Hagar and Sarah: "These are the two covenants." So then the two covenants existed in every essential particular in the days of Abraham. Even so they do to-day; for the Scripture says now as well as then, "Cast out the bondwoman and her son." We see then that the two covenants are not matters of time, but of condition. Let no one flatter himself that he can not be under the old covenant, because the time for that is passed. Bondage comes from unbelief, which is the essence of the Old Covenant. Hagar represents unbelief, which is manifest by works of the flesh. Sarah represents faith, which is manifest by works of faith.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: What was nailed to the cross in Col 2:14?
[Re: Tom]
#103741
10/17/08 09:45 AM
10/17/08 09:45 AM
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T:He "passes by" the injury done to Himself, something He has the right to do.
MM:I agree with the quote you posted. God earned the right to pardon past sins because Jesus paid our sin debt of death. I don't understand why you wouldn't consider this assertion absurd; as if God had to earn the right to pardon sins! Tell me, please, how can you think the Master of the Universe, the Creator of all things, Jehovah God, above all, would need to earn the right to do anything? Tom, you need to go all the way to the bottom of the pile to understand why Jesus earned the right forgive sins--all the way to the foundation. The foundation is this: God's law. If God were to forgive sins, without having paid for them in accordance with the law, it would be tantamount to God sanctioning sin Himself. He would essentially be going against His own law (which He never does, nor can do) in order to commute its sentence and let the guilty go free. The quote you presented earlier also establishes the fact that God "earned" the right to forgive. Notice this part of it: "True, but the innocent Sufferer 'gave himself' voluntarily, in order that He might in justice to His government do what His love prompted...." He had to give Himself--die on the cross--in order to be able to do what He wanted, that is, to pardon us, or, as was suggested, to "pass by the injury done to Himself." Here is a statement from Mrs. White which touches on this a little: My spirit at times is triumphant in God. I see in prospect just before us the eternal weight of glory. We have not earned it. Oh, no, Jesus earned it for us and it is a free gift, not for any righteousness and goodness of our own. Let us, in the few probationary hours left us, walk humbly with God and do the work He has committed to our hands with fidelity. {UL 222.5} [The Upward Look (1982)]
Blessings, Green Cochoa
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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Re: What was nailed to the cross in Col 2:14?
[Re: Green Cochoa]
#103742
10/17/08 11:28 AM
10/17/08 11:28 AM
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True, but the innocent Sufferer 'gave himself' voluntarily, in order that He might in justice to His government do what His love prompted. The author of this statement also wrote: A propitiation is a sacrifice. The statement then is simply that Christ is set forth to be a sacrifice for the remission of our sins. "Once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself." Heb. 9:26. Of course the idea of a propitiation or sacrifice is that there is wrath to be appeased. But take particular notice that it is we who require the sacrifice, and not God. He provides the sacrifice. The idea that God's wrath has to be propitiated in order that we may have forgiveness finds no warrant in the Bible. Do you agree with this? I'm asking because this is the perspective from which the first statement is coming from. Regarding our not earning our righteousness, but receiving it as a free give from Jesus Christ who did earn it, of course this is the case. Any Christian understands this. This has nothing to do with penal substitution. This is bringing out the point I made previously, that because of our culture, we automatically interpret certain phrases a certain way. But the whole penal substitution idea is relatively new, first given full expression AFAIK by Calvin. For example, where did Jesus Christ give voice to the idea that God cannot freely forgive sin? Where does Jesus Christ teach that God earned the legal right to forgive our sins by virtue of His death? Regarding the SOP, what do you do with her statement that the whole purpose of Christ's mission was the revelation of God in order to set men right with Him? Surely His death on the cross was a part of His mission. If the whole purpose of His mission was the revelation of God, and the cross was included in His mission, than this point must apply to the cross as well, right?
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: What was nailed to the cross in Col 2:14?
[Re: Tom]
#103743
10/17/08 01:05 PM
10/17/08 01:05 PM
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The "revelation of God" can be summed up in John 1:14-15. "The Word became flesh, and dwelt among us; and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only-begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth."
As to the quotation regarding the appeasement, or non-appeasement of God's wrath, I am not entirely on that same wavelength. I think that I might agree to it in a very strict sense, but if we loosen the definitions just a little (e.g. God's character is represented by the law, therefore the wrath of the law can be considered as God's own wrath), then it can readily be seen that there is "wrath" to be appeased. I say "wrath", because in reality it is not so much wrath as it is "justice" or "judgment." And as for "us" being the ones to require the sacrifice, no, I think it is not just us, although certainly we are the catalyst. The law is what requires the life of sinners, and by His sacrifice, Jesus fulfilled this law, taking its penalty for us, which now enables us to enjoy a life we did not deserve.
Blessings,
Green Cochoa.
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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Re: What was nailed to the cross in Col 2:14?
[Re: Green Cochoa]
#103747
10/17/08 03:10 PM
10/17/08 03:10 PM
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The "revelation of God" can be summed up in John 1:14-15. "The Word became flesh, and dwelt among us; and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only-begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth." Yes, this is a nice way to summarize it, although she actually had John 17 in mind in her actual quote. My point was since the whole purpose of Christ's ministry was the revelation of God, His death should be understood from that perspective as well. As to the quotation regarding the appeasement, or non-appeasement of God's wrath, I am not entirely on that same wavelength. I think that I might agree to it in a very strict sense, but if we loosen the definitions just a little (e.g. God's character is represented by the law, therefore the wrath of the law can be considered as God's own wrath), then it can readily be seen that there is "wrath" to be appeased. The law can't literally have wrath. It's not alive. It's just a concept. When you say, "God's character is represented by the law, therefore the wrath of the law can be considered as God's own wrath," one could argue the other way around. Since the law is a transcript of God's character, God's wrath could be represented by the metaphor, "the wrath of the law," but you can't argue the other way around, because there is no such thing, in a literal sense, as "the wrath of the law." I say "wrath", because in reality it is not so much wrath as it is "justice" or "judgment." And as for "us" being the ones to require the sacrifice, no, I think it is not just us, although certainly we are the catalyst. The law is what requires the life of sinners, and by His sacrifice, Jesus fulfilled this law, taking its penalty for us, which now enables us to enjoy a life we did not deserve. To say the law requires something is a metaphor. To say the law requires something is tantamount to saying God requires it, which is the whole point of contention. I've pointed out that if God required that Christ be killed in order to forgive man for legal reasons, these same reasons would have applied in order for God to forgive Lucifer. But God offered Lucifer pardon without Christ's being killed. Therefore this argument is false, and the requirement cannot be a strictly legal one.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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