In that thick darkness God's presence was hidden. He makes darkness His pavilion, and conceals His glory from human eyes. God and His holy angels were beside the cross. The Father was with His Son. Yet His presence was not revealed. Had His glory flashed forth from the cloud, every human beholder would have been destroyed. And in that dreadful hour Christ was not to be comforted with the Father's presence. He trod the wine press alone, and of the people there was none with Him. (DA 753)

Why did He have to treat Jesus as though He committed the sins of the world?

If the only purpose is what I stated above, it seems like cruel overkill for the Father to also unleash His undiluted wrath upon Jesus.

This is not an act of arbitrary power on the part of God. The rejecters of His mercy reap that which they have sown. God is the fountain of life; and when one chooses the service of sin, he separates from God, and thus cuts himself off from life. He is "alienated from the life of God." Christ says, "All they that hate Me love death." Eph. 4:18; Prov. 8:36. God gives them existence for a time that they may develop their character and reveal their principles. This accomplished, they receive the results of their own choice. By a life of rebellion, Satan and all who unite with him place themselves so out of harmony with God that His very presence is to them a consuming fire. The glory of Him who is love will destroy them.

At the beginning of the great controversy, the angels did not understand this. Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin. A doubt of God's goodness would have remained in their minds as evil seed, to produce its deadly fruit of sin and woe. (DA 764)

Seems to me it would be more in keeping with this purpose to simply have Jesus lay down on an altar and let the Father slay Him like in the story of Abraham and Isaac.

How did Jesus' agonizing death on the cross reveal the love of God?

33And when they were come to the place, which is called Calvary, there they crucified him, and the malefactors, one on the right hand, and the other on the left.

34Then said Jesus, Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do. And they parted his raiment, and cast lots. (Luke 23)

How did God hiding His face reveal His love? It seems pointless, if not cruel and unusual, to submit to torture and death for no other reason than to demonstrate the love of God.

Voluntarily permitting sinners to torture and kill you, when escape was within reason, seems melodramatic at best if no other purpose is served. It's a complete waste of life. Jesus sufficiently demonstrated the love of God before He willingly submitted to torture and death.

Unless, of course, His torture and death were needed to also demonstrate the inevitable results of sinning from which Jesus seeks to save us.

But, according to your view of justice and judgment, what Jesus suffered at the hands of sinners is not the inevitable results of sinning. So, I am still puzzled by your ideas as to why Jesus had to suffer and die as a sinner.

At the beginning of the great controversy, the angels did not understand this. Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin. A doubt of God's goodness would have remained in their minds as evil seed, to produce its deadly fruit of sin and woe. (DA 764)

M: Unless, of course, His torture and death were needed to also demonstrate the inevitable results of sinning from which Jesus seeks to save us. But, according to your view of justice and judgment, what Jesus suffered at the hands of sinners is not the inevitable results of sinning. So, I am still puzzled by your ideas as to why Jesus had to suffer and die as a sinner.

T: I'm sort of puzzled by your conclusion here. I've quoted the following many times:

Tom, you seemed to have missed the point. The point is Jesus sufficiently demonstrated the love of God before He willingly submitted to torture and death.

14For this cause I bow my knees unto the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ,

15Of whom the whole family in heaven and earth is named,

16That he would grant you, according to the riches of his glory, to be strengthened with might by his Spirit in the inner man;

17That Christ may dwell in your hearts by faith; that ye, being rooted and grounded in love,

18May be able to comprehend with all saints what is the breadth, and length, and depth, and height;

19And to know the love of Christ, which passeth knowledge, that ye might be filled with all the fulness of God.

20Now unto him that is able to do exceeding abundantly above all that we ask or think, according to the power that worketh in us,

21Unto him be glory in the church by Christ Jesus throughout all ages, world without end. Amen. (Eph. 3:14-21)

33And when they were come to the place, which is called Calvary, there they crucified him, and the malefactors, one on the right hand, and the other on the left.

34Then said Jesus, Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do. And they parted his raiment, and cast lots. (Luke 23)

Therefore, enduring the hiding of His Father's face while paying our sin debt of death also satisfied the just and loving demands of law and justice, namely, death must happen in consequence of man's sin.

This quote addresses Satan - not Jesus.

Besides that, your quote doesn't address my point. Here it is again: What Jesus suffered at the hands of sinners is not the inevitable results of sinning. So, His torture at the hands of sinners does not demonstrate the inevitable results of sinning. Which begs the question: What purpose did it serve? Why did He submit to it?

Tom, do you agree that Jesus sufficiently demonstrated the love of God before He submitted to torture at the hands of sinners?

Do you agree that what Jesus suffered at the hands of sinners is not the inevitable results of sinning?

NOTE: Please understand that these questions do not imply Jesus did not demonstrate the love of God by submitting to torture at the hands of sinners.

M: Tom, do you agree that Jesus sufficiently demonstrated the love of God before He submitted to torture at the hands of sinners?

T: Before His death, not enough had been revealed to resolve the Great Controversy.

M: Do you agree that what Jesus suffered at the hands of sinners is not the inevitable results of sinning?

T: No.

What did submitting to torture at the hands of sinners reveal and resolve about the GC that hadn't already been revealed and resolved?

What do you think is the inevitable results of sinning?

Is suffering at the hands of sinners the inevitable results of sinning? Please support your answer with inspired passages. Monosyllabic answers are rarely sufficient. Thank you.

22Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know:

23Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain: (Acts 2)

What did submitting to torture at the hands of sinners reveal and resolve about the GC that hadn't already been revealed and resolved?

T: The cross revealed the character of God, the character of Satan, the nature of sin, of death, and of our character (i.e., of unregenerate man).