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Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? [Re: Mountain Man] #106735
12/29/08 09:28 PM
12/29/08 09:28 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
T: No, this isn't true. They had a vast oral tradition, as I pointed out. This is what Moses wrote Job and the books of the Pentateuch from. Not all of the oral tradition was written down (also, much of what was written down was not part of the oral tradition, since it hadn't happened yet; e.g. the oral tradition did not contain the Exodus).

M:You would be hard pressed to prove your point, Tom.


Not at all. This is common knowledge.

Quote:
You would have to turn to unbiblical sources to do so, and what good would that do? It wouldn’t prove a thing. Besides, do you know of any non-canonical sources which explain what people who lived before the Exodus knew about Sabbath-keeping above and beyond what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11?


It's an oral tradition, MM, not a written one.

Quote:
M: Job says nothing about the Sabbath. If you disagree, please post inspired passages that teach otherwise.

Again, you didn't answer my question. Here it is again: Do these verses [Gen 2:1-3 and Ex 20:8-11] require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain "better" reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day?

T: I did answer this. Your assumption that this is all they had is incorrect.

M:Insisting it is so is not the answer I was looking for, Tom.


You're insisting all they had was Gen. 2:1-3. I'm pointing out this isn't the case.

Quote:
Please post inspired quotes which clearly state what you think about it. BTW, do you agree the two passages referred to above lack the kind of evidence, reasoning, and understanding you think is necessary to qualify as sufficient to obey God intelligently and not slavishly?


Scripture doesn't discuss how it was formed. It doesn't even define what is canonical. That there was knowledge obtained and passed along by holy men before the Bible is brought out here:

Quote:
Notwithstanding the prevailing iniquity, there was a line of holy men who, elevated and ennobled by communion with God, lived as in the companionship of heaven. They were men of massive intellect, of wonderful attainments. They had a great and holy mission--to develop a character of righteousness, to teach a lesson of godliness, not only to the men of their time, but for future generations. Only a few of the most prominent are mentioned in the Scriptures; but all through the ages God had faithfully witnesses, truehearted worshipers. (PP 84)


Regarding your question, no, I don't agree.

Quote:
M: God's people were not slaves for 2500 years. The Jews were slaves for less than 200 years. My question pertains to everyone who lived and kept the Sabbath before the Exodus. Did they render slavish obedience since the only reason God gave for keeping the Sabbath was because He rested on that day?

T: Same answer.

M:You seem to expect me to render slavish obedience since your evidence is less than sufficient. Ha! That was an awkward attempt at humor. Perhaps I need to take lessons from Teresaq?


I have absolutely no clue what you're talking about. You asked, "Did they render slavish obedience since the only reason God gave for keeping the Sabbath was because He rested on that day?" This is based on a false assumption. I already explained this. "Same answer" was referring to this explanation.

I'll treat your 7 points separately.

Quote:
T:Without considering evidence, it would be very easy to be under the delusion that one is obeying God while actually obeying the enemy. Regarding what the concept of slavish obedience encompasses, there's no need to speculate. We're told what it is. It's as opposed to "intelligent appreciation." Jesus describes it in terms of not knowing what the master is doing.

M:Let’s apply your logic to a real situation and see if it pans out the way you think. Moses killed the Sabbath-breaker and the blasphemer on the basis he believed God commanded him to do so. Was he “under the delusion that [he was] obeying God while [he was] actually obeying the enemy”?


Let me ask, do you disagree with what I wrote? If so, what did you disagree with? In response to your example, it doesn't apply, as Moses's faith was based on reason, evidence and understanding.

Quote:
T: Jesus said, "I do not call you servants (slaves) any longer" which implies there was a time when He did. So if one is unwilling to keep step with God, God will humble Himself and keep step with man. The Old and New Covenant is a perfect illustration of this theme.

M:Are you implying rendering obedience in response to, Because I said so, is slavish? And, are you implying the obedience God required under the OC was slavish, that He compromised and required it to accommodate their less than favorable circumstances and mind set?


No. I think you're missing the whole point here.

Quote:
If so, are you not also implying that observing everything God required under the OC required slavish obedience, and that such slavish obedience was repulsive and unacceptable to God? Wouldn’t this include the feast days, the sanitary laws, the judicial laws, and dietary laws? If not, what else do you think God required under the OC that did not require slavish obedience?


The following explains my point:

Quote:
What are the two covenants?--The two women, Hagar and Sarah; for we read that Hagar is Mount Sinai, "which gendereth to bondage." That is, just as Hagar could not bring forth any other kind of children than slaves, so the law, even the law that God spoke from Sinai, can not beget freemen. It can do nothing but hold them in bondage. "The law worketh wrath:" "for by the law is the knowledge of sin." The same is true of the covenant from Sinai, for it consisted merely of the promise of the people to keep that law, and had, therefore, no more power to make them free than the law itself had,--no more power than they already had in their bondage. Nay, rather, it "gendered to bondage," since their making it was simply a promise to make themselves righteous by their own works, and man in himself is "without strength."

Consider the situation: The people were in the bondage of sin; they had no power to break their chains; but the speaking of the law made no change in their condition; it introduced no new feature. If a man is in prison for crime, you can not release him by reading the statutes to him. It was the law that put him there, and the reading of it to him only makes his captivity more painful.

"Then did not God Himself lead them into bondage?"--Not by any means; since He did not induce them to make that covenant at Sinai. Four hundred and thirty years before that time He had made a covenant with Abraham, which was sufficient for all purposes. That covenant was confirmed in Christ, and, therefore, was a covenant from above. See John 8:23. It promised righteousness as a free gift of God through faith, and it included all nations. All the miracles that God had wrought in delivering the children of Israel from Egyptian bondage were but demonstrations of His power to deliver them and us from the bondage of sin. Yes, the deliverance from Egypt was itself a demonstration not only of God's power, but also of His desire to lead them from the bondage of sin, that bondage in which the covenant from Sinai holds men, because Hagar, who is the covenant from Sinai, was an Egyptian. So when the people came to Sinai, God simply referred them to what He had already done, and then said, "Now therefore, if ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto Me above all people; for all the earth is Mine." Ex.19:5. To what covenant did He refer?--Evidently to the one already in existence, His covenant with Abraham. If they would simply keep God's covenant, that is, God's promise,--keep the faith,--they would be a peculiar treasure unto God, for God, as the possessor of all the earth, was able to do with them all that He had promised. The fact that they in their self-sufficiency rashly took the whole responsibility upon themselves, does not prove that God led them into making that covenant, but the contrary. He was leading them out of bondage, not into it, and the apostle plainly tells us that covenant from Sinai was nothing but bondage. (The Glad Tidings)


I underlined some spots of particular interest, which explain the logic involved.

I'd suggest reading the whole chapter: http://www.brooklawn.org/Books/GladTidings/GT05TheAdoptionofSons.htm

This chapter goes into a lengthy explanation. EGW spoke well of Waggoner's teaching on the covenants, which she called "clear as sunlight."


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? [Re: Tom] #106740
12/29/08 10:00 PM
12/29/08 10:00 PM
teresaq  Offline
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Joined: Mar 2008
Posts: 1,984
CA, USA
God brought them to Sinai; He manifested His glory; He gave them His law, with the promise of great blessings on condition of obedience: "If ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then . . . ye shall be unto Me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation." Exodus 19:5, 6.

The people did not realize the sinfulness of their own hearts, and that without Christ it was impossible for them to keep God's law; and they readily entered into covenant with God. Feeling that they were able to establish their own righteousness, they declared, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Exodus 24:7.

They had witnessed the proclamation of the law in awful majesty, and had trembled with terror before the mount; and yet only a few weeks passed before they broke their covenant with God, and bowed down to worship a graven image.

They could not hope for the favor of God through a covenant which they had broken; and now, seeing their sinfulness and their need of pardon, they were brought to feel their need of the Saviour revealed in the Abrahamic covenant and shadowed forth in the sacrificial offerings. Now by faith and love they were bound to God as their deliverer from the bondage of sin. Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant. {PP 371.4}
The terms of the "old covenant" were, Obey and live: "If a man do, he shall even live in them" (Ezekiel 20:11; Leviticus 18:5); but "cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them." Deuteronomy 27:26. The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. "This shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts. . . . I will forgive their iniquity, and will remember their sin no more." Jeremiah 31:33, 34. {PP 372.1}
The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ. His blood atones for our sins. His obedience is accepted for us. Then the heart renewed by the Holy Spirit will bring forth "the fruits of the Spirit." Through the grace of Christ we shall live in obedience to the law of God written upon our hearts. Having the Spirit of Christ, we shall walk even as He walked. Through the prophet He declared of Himself, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God: yea, Thy law is within My heart." Psalm 40:8. And when among men He said, "The Father hath not left Me alone; for I do always those things that please Him." John 8:29. {PP 372.2}
The apostle Paul clearly presents the relation between faith and the law under the new covenant. He says: "Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ." "Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh"--it could not justify man, because in his sinful nature he could not keep the law--"God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." Romans 5:1; 3:31; 8:3, 4. {PP 373.1}


Psa 64:5 ...an evil matter: they commune of laying snares privily; they say, Who shall see them?

Psa 7:14 Behold, he travaileth with iniquity, and hath conceived mischief, and brought forth falsehood. 15 He made a pit, and digged it, and is fallen into the ditch which he made. 16 His mischief (and his violent dealing) shall return upon his own head.

Psa 7:17 I will praise the LORD according to his righteousness: and will sing praise to the name of the LORD most high.
Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? [Re: Mountain Man] #106742
12/29/08 10:24 PM
12/29/08 10:24 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
1. Now, as to your first question. Jesus said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you." Obviously, the kind of friendship Jesus is referring to isn't an ordinary friendship. Jesus is, after all, God, and we're only human, and sinful to boot. My earthly friendships are not predicated on doing whatever they command me to do. Do you see a difference? If not, please explain why you think the kind of friendship Jesus referred to is no different than the kind of friendships you and I form on earth with other humans.


In John 15 Jesus said that he no longer was calling His disciples servants (or slaves; same Greek word) but friends. The reason was because He had told them what He had heard from His father. So the difference between obedience as slaves (or servants) is that it lacks a knowledge of what the Master is doing.

I'm not understanding your point about a friendship with Christ being different than other friendships.

Quote:
2. Jesus also said, "Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." This must be understood in a limited sense, because obviously Jesus didn't tell them everything His Father told Him. Do you agree?


Jesus said, "for all things that I have heard from my Father I have made known unto you." You say, "obviously Jesus didn't tell them everything His Father told Him." You look to be contradicting what Jesus said here. Jesus said, "for all things that I have heard from my Father I have made known unto you." You say He didn't do this. I believe Jesus did what He said He did.

Quote:
By the way, when and where did Jesus ever call them servants?


Since Jesus said, "no longer," before He said this ("no longer" etc.) he did.

Quote:
For example, Jesus said, "I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now." He left it to the Holy Spirit to explain certain things to the disciples later on. But not even the Holy Spirit could tell them everything. Elsewhere we read, "O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past finding out!" Do you agree Jesus didn’t tell them everything His Father told Him, that the comment “all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you” refers to a specific set of topics and not to everything else Jesus learned from His Father?


No. Jesus said, "for all things that I have heard from my Father I have made known unto you." I agree with what Jesus said. Since there were things Jesus didn't tell them, the logical inference is that the things Jesus didn't tell them were not the "all things I have heard from my Father," since Jesus said, of these, "I have made (them) known unto you."

Quote:
3. "Henceforth I call you not servants." Even this statement must be understood in a limited sense. Jesus also said, "He that is greatest among you shall be your servant. If any man desire to be first, the same shall be last of all, and servant of all. Blessed is that servant, whom his lord when he cometh shall find so doing. Well done, thou good and faithful servant . . . enter thou into the joy of thy lord. The servant is not greater than his lord. If they have persecuted me, they will also persecute you; if they have kept my saying, they will keep yours also." Do you agree that these passages imply Jesus still considers His informed and faithful followers as servants? If not, then please explain what you think they mean.


In John 15 Jesus said he no longer called them servants but friends, and He explained why. I believe what Jesus said. He's not saying "servants and friends," but "not servants, but friends." He's pointing out a contrast. He explains the reason for the contrast.

Quote:
4. There is also the fact the disciples and apostles referred to themselves as servants. For example, "Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ. Epaphras, who is one of you, a servant of Christ. James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ. Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ. Jude, the servant of Jesus Christ. The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to show unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John." Why do you think these holy people of God continued referring to themselves as servants after Jesus said what He did about servants and friends?


I think it's fine for followers of Jesus to refer to themselves as servants, if they are willing to do for the Lord what Paul was willing to do.

Quote:
5. "For the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth." Again, this statement must be understood in a limited sense. Jesus also said, "And that servant, which knew his lord's will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes." Obviously this servant was in the know. Nevertheless, he didn't obey his master. The end of such servants is less than desirable. "Cast ye the unprofitable servant into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth." Do you agree this servant knew the will of his lord? If so, how do you reconcile this passage with what Jesus said about servants in the passage under discussion, namely, "For the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth."


I don't see that there's anything to reconcile. I think Jesus' message in John 15 is clear. He "no longer" called His disciples servants but friends because He was now explaining to them all things which He had heard from His Father.

In regards to the parable you cited, I would say it, rather than Jesus statement in John 15, is what is limited. That is, that servant could hardly be described as knowing what his master was doing. The servant did not have faith, but viewed his master as a despot. In the parable, Jesus had the master answering in accordance to the misunderstanding that the servant had, explaining that even according to this misunderstanding of the master's true character, he was still guilty of behaving poorly. The servant in the parable was not even a true servant, let alone a friend.

Quote:
6. So, what did Jesus mean when He said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you. Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." Again, I believe it must be understood within the immediate context.

Here it is: [John 15:1-17 quoted] This is the context of the statement, "All things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." In particular, Jesus made known to them the following things:

"Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you. Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, except it abide in the vine; no more can ye, except ye abide in me. Herein is my Father glorified, that ye bear much fruit; so shall ye be my disciples. These things have I spoken unto you, that my joy might remain in you, and that your joy might be full. This is my commandment, That ye love one another, as I have loved you."

This is what it takes to be Jesus' friend. But being His friend does not mean we stop being His servant.


Jesus said, "15Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you."

This is very clear. Jesus says:

1.I call you not servants.
2.Why? Because the servant does not know what his master does.
3.I call you friends.
4.Why? Because all things I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.

Jesus makes a contrast here, and explains the reason for the contrast.

Quote:
He will always be our Lord and Master, and we will always be His servants and friends. Again, this type of friendship is unique in that it doesn't resemble normal earthly friendships. Beings friends with the Lord and Master of the Universe is not the same thing as being friends with angels or humans or any other FMA. For one thing, we are not His equal.

Do you agree with these observations? If not, please explain exactly what and why you disagree with them. Thank you.


No, MM, I don't agree. I agree with what Jesus said. When Jesus said that He "no longer" was calling His disciples "servants," that means He used to, but was discontinuing doing so. He was now calling them "friends" instead. He says, "but I have called you friends." Not "and I am calling you friends too" rather "but" I have called you friends.

Quote:
7. Consider also the fact Jesus called Judas "friend" the night he betrayed Jesus into the hands of sinners. "Friend, wherefore art thou come?" A similar thing exists in the following passages where Jesus is portrayed as calling people "friend" when they are in fact not His friends. "Friend, I do thee no wrong: didst not thou agree with me for a penny?" "Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment?" Why does Jesus call such people friends? In what sense are they His friend? Do they know everything Jesus knows and is that what makes them His friend? Satan knows everything they know, does that make him Jesus’ friend, too? If not, why not? Please explain what you believe about it.


I believe that God is gracious, and that God considers His enemies as friends, and treats them as such. So when Jesus called Judas "friend," He was disclosing how He felt about Judas in His heart. Jesus loved Judas, loved him as a friend, despite his treachery.

Regarding Satan, no, Satan does not know what God does.

Quote:
Unselfishness, the principle of God's kingdom, is the principle that Satan hates; its very existence he denies.(Ed 154)


Satan doesn't even understand what God does, let alone know it.

To know what God does encompasses more than the idea that God is physically performing some action. It involves an understanding of God's character and the principles of His government, as well as faith in God and love for Him.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? [Re: Mountain Man] #106803
12/30/08 09:16 PM
12/30/08 09:16 PM
Mountain Man  Offline
SDA
Charter Member
Active Member 2019

20000+ Member
Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
Tom, I just read your last post to Arnold (106514). If I were in your shoes I would wonder why three intelligent posters on this forum have so much trouble understanding your position. If you're open to ideas I would say it's because you rarely state your position clearly. For someone who spends so much time instructing others how to clearly state their position it seems strange to me that you often fail to do so yourself.

I've repeated asked that what I have written be quoted, and things be questioned or commented on the basis of that. If people take it upon themselves to assert that I believe or have stated things I've never said, I don't see how I can be held responsible for that, especially when I've been asking all along to be quoted.

Now if you, or Arnold, or whoever *quotes* something I said, and *that* is unclear, then I bear the responsibility of what I wrote being unclear.

For example, you state here that I rarely state my position clearly. On this thread I've stated my position over and over again, which is that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason and understanding. What's unclear about that? I've stated that God does not ask us to believe without giving us sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith. Isn't that clear as well?

Tom, the fact you must repeatedly restate your position suggests it wasn't clear enough the first time. I'm guessing the reason some people do not quote you is because what you posted wasn't clear enough to quote. But perhaps you are improving. I don't know.

You wrote, "God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason, and understanding." Are you implying people who obey God based on evidence alone counts as slavish? And, aren't you also implying "slavish obedience" is not true obedience (in the sense it is not the fruit of the Holy Spirit dwelling within)?

You also wrote, "I've stated that God does not ask us to believe without giving us sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith." What do you consider sufficient? Isn't it rather subjective? "God said it, I believe it, and that settles it for me." Does this song refer to sufficient evidence? For me it does. How about you?

For example, it matters not to me that I can't prove God exists, or that I can't prove He created everything in 7 days. Note: Some people argue God created everything in 6 days, but they overlook the fact God created the seventh day on the seventh day.

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? [Re: teresaq] #106804
12/30/08 09:20 PM
12/30/08 09:20 PM
Mountain Man  Offline
SDA
Charter Member
Active Member 2019

20000+ Member
Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
Originally Posted By: teresaq
God brought them to Sinai; He manifested His glory; He gave them His law, with the promise of great blessings on condition of obedience: "If ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then . . . ye shall be unto Me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation." Exodus 19:5, 6.

The people did not realize the sinfulness of their own hearts, and that without Christ it was impossible for them to keep God's law; and they readily entered into covenant with God. Feeling that they were able to establish their own righteousness, they declared, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Exodus 24:7.

They had witnessed the proclamation of the law in awful majesty, and had trembled with terror before the mount; and yet only a few weeks passed before they broke their covenant with God, and bowed down to worship a graven image.

They could not hope for the favor of God through a covenant which they had broken; and now, seeing their sinfulness and their need of pardon, they were brought to feel their need of the Saviour revealed in the Abrahamic covenant and shadowed forth in the sacrificial offerings. Now by faith and love they were bound to God as their deliverer from the bondage of sin. Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant. {PP 371.4}
The terms of the "old covenant" were, Obey and live: "If a man do, he shall even live in them" (Ezekiel 20:11; Leviticus 18:5); but "cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them." Deuteronomy 27:26. The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. "This shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts. . . . I will forgive their iniquity, and will remember their sin no more." Jeremiah 31:33, 34. {PP 372.1}
The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ. His blood atones for our sins. His obedience is accepted for us. Then the heart renewed by the Holy Spirit will bring forth "the fruits of the Spirit." Through the grace of Christ we shall live in obedience to the law of God written upon our hearts. Having the Spirit of Christ, we shall walk even as He walked. Through the prophet He declared of Himself, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God: yea, Thy law is within My heart." Psalm 40:8. And when among men He said, "The Father hath not left Me alone; for I do always those things that please Him." John 8:29. {PP 372.2}
The apostle Paul clearly presents the relation between faith and the law under the new covenant. He says: "Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ." "Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh"--it could not justify man, because in his sinful nature he could not keep the law--"God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." Romans 5:1; 3:31; 8:3, 4. {PP 373.1}

What point are you making in posting this quote? This would be a good quote for the Covenant thread.

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? [Re: Mountain Man] #106818
12/30/08 11:07 PM
12/30/08 11:07 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
Tom, the fact you must repeatedly restate your position suggests it wasn't clear enough the first time. I'm guessing the reason some people do not quote you is because what you posted wasn't clear enough to quote.


That doesn't make any sense. You know how to quote people. You just highlight what they wrote with your mouse, and put the quote tags around it. If there's something unclear, select that, and quote it.

Quote:
But perhaps you are improving. I don't know.


It's not an unusual thing for people to be misquoted. This happens any time new positions are suggested. Jerome, I think it was, was pressured to retract "his" position. He complained that he had never taught the things he was being pressured to retract, and asked how he could retract some position he never held.

This isn't to detract from the possibility that I'm being unclear. If someone who holds to the same position I hold told me I was being unclear, I would certainly accept that. If someone who holds to a different position than mine refused to quote what I wrote and instead takes it upon themselves to assert things I've never said, it might or might not be the case that the problem is a lack of clarity on my part. If someone quotes something I said, and says they don't understand what that means, that would sound more like a lack of clarity or understanding what was said, and I would be glad to clarify.

Quote:
You wrote, "God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason, and understanding." Are you implying people who obey God based on evidence alone counts as slavish?


Evidence not based on reason and understanding? No, I didn't have this in mind. In fact, the possibility of such a thing is not something I would have thought of without your mentioning it. Now that you have mentioned it, I must admit your concept doesn't make sense to me. How can you have evidence that doesn't involve reason or understanding? What good is evidence that is not understood?

Quote:
And, aren't you also implying "slavish obedience" is not true obedience (in the sense it is not the fruit of the Holy Spirit dwelling within)?


No, I haven't addressed this. What I've said is that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason and understanding.

Quote:
You also wrote, "I've stated that God does not ask us to believe without giving us sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith."


Actually Ellen White said it, in SC 105, which I cited.

Quote:
What do you consider sufficient?


She addresses this question in the quote.

Quote:
Isn't it rather subjective? "God said it, I believe it, and that settles it for me." Does this song refer to sufficient evidence? For me it does. How about you?


How is this different than the slavish obedience which God does not desire? Where does evidence, reason, or understanding fit into this?

Quote:
For example, it matters not to me that I can't prove God exists, or that I can't prove He created everything in 7 days. Note: Some people argue God created everything in 6 days, but they overlook the fact God created the seventh day on the seventh day.


Of course you can't prove this, but God has provided evidence for these things, so that a person looking for a faith based on evidence, reason and understanding can find the support needed for such faith.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? [Re: Tom] #106939
01/01/09 05:18 PM
01/01/09 05:18 PM
Mountain Man  Offline
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Active Member 2019

20000+ Member
Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
Originally Posted By: Tom
M: You wrote, "God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason, and understanding." Are you implying people who obey God based on evidence alone counts as slavish?

T: Evidence not based on reason and understanding? No, I didn't have this in mind. In fact, the possibility of such a thing is not something I would have thought of without your mentioning it. Now that you have mentioned it, I must admit your concept doesn't make sense to me. How can you have evidence that doesn't involve reason or understanding? What good is evidence that is not understood?

God can tell us what to do without providing evidence or reason, and neither would it be conditional upon our understanding or comprehending why. The fact God said it is all the motivation we need to trust the Holy Spirit to empower us to cheerfully comply. This is not to say additional reasons and evidence wouldn’t be helpful in understanding why. It’s just that it wouldn’t be necessary to rely on the Holy Spirit to empower us to obey.

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: "God said it, I believe it, and that settles it for me." Does this song refer to sufficient evidence? For me it does. How about you?

T: How is this different than the slavish obedience which God does not desire? Where does evidence, reason, or understanding fit into this?

The reason is because God said it. Obeying God because He said so doesn’t sound slavish to me. Would you say obedience based on this reason alone is made possible by the indwelling Spirit of God? If so, how, then, can you label it slavish? If not, what is the origin and source of such obedience?

Also, please cite an example from the Bible of slavish obedience. And, explain why it constitutes slavish obedience. Thank you.

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: For example, it matters not to me that I can't prove God exists, or that I can't prove He created everything in 7 days. Note: Some people argue God created everything in 6 days, but they overlook the fact God created the seventh day on the seventh day.

T: Of course you can't prove this, but God has provided evidence for these things, so that a person looking for a faith based on evidence, reason and understanding can find the support needed for such faith.

What is the evidence that God exists? What is the evidence that He created the world in 7 days? Is it based on more than a “Thus saith the Lord” or “It is written”? What are the reasons? What is the understanding? Can we safely place these truths on hold until we have more evidence and reasons than a mere "Thus saith the Lord" or a mere "It is written"?

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? [Re: Mountain Man] #106943
01/01/09 05:57 PM
01/01/09 05:57 PM
teresaq  Offline
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Joined: Mar 2008
Posts: 1,984
CA, USA
Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
Originally Posted By: teresaq
God brought them to Sinai; He manifested His glory; He gave them His law, with the promise of great blessings on condition of obedience: "If ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then . . . ye shall be unto Me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation." Exodus 19:5, 6.

The people did not realize the sinfulness of their own hearts, and that without Christ it was impossible for them to keep God's law; and they readily entered into covenant with God. Feeling that they were able to establish their own righteousness, they declared, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Exodus 24:7.

They had witnessed the proclamation of the law in awful majesty, and had trembled with terror before the mount; and yet only a few weeks passed before they broke their covenant with God, and bowed down to worship a graven image.

They could not hope for the favor of God through a covenant which they had broken; and now, seeing their sinfulness and their need of pardon, they were brought to feel their need of the Saviour revealed in the Abrahamic covenant and shadowed forth in the sacrificial offerings. Now by faith and love they were bound to God as their deliverer from the bondage of sin. Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant. {PP 371.4}
The terms of the "old covenant" were, Obey and live: "If a man do, he shall even live in them" (Ezekiel 20:11; Leviticus 18:5); but "cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them." Deuteronomy 27:26. The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. "This shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts. . . . I will forgive their iniquity, and will remember their sin no more." Jeremiah 31:33, 34. {PP 372.1}
The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ. His blood atones for our sins. His obedience is accepted for us. Then the heart renewed by the Holy Spirit will bring forth "the fruits of the Spirit." Through the grace of Christ we shall live in obedience to the law of God written upon our hearts. Having the Spirit of Christ, we shall walk even as He walked. Through the prophet He declared of Himself, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God: yea, Thy law is within My heart." Psalm 40:8. And when among men He said, "The Father hath not left Me alone; for I do always those things that please Him." John 8:29. {PP 372.2}
The apostle Paul clearly presents the relation between faith and the law under the new covenant. He says: "Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ." "Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh"--it could not justify man, because in his sinful nature he could not keep the law--"God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." Romans 5:1; 3:31; 8:3, 4. {PP 373.1}

What point are you making in posting this quote? This would be a good quote for the Covenant thread.


it backs up the quote from glad tidings in post #106735.


Psa 64:5 ...an evil matter: they commune of laying snares privily; they say, Who shall see them?

Psa 7:14 Behold, he travaileth with iniquity, and hath conceived mischief, and brought forth falsehood. 15 He made a pit, and digged it, and is fallen into the ditch which he made. 16 His mischief (and his violent dealing) shall return upon his own head.

Psa 7:17 I will praise the LORD according to his righteousness: and will sing praise to the name of the LORD most high.
Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? [Re: teresaq] #106949
01/01/09 07:06 PM
01/01/09 07:06 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
M: You wrote, "God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason, and understanding." Are you implying people who obey God based on evidence alone counts as slavish?

T: Evidence not based on reason and understanding? No, I didn't have this in mind. In fact, the possibility of such a thing is not something I would have thought of without your mentioning it. Now that you have mentioned it, I must admit your concept doesn't make sense to me. How can you have evidence that doesn't involve reason or understanding? What good is evidence that is not understood?

M:God can tell us what to do without providing evidence or reason, and neither would it be conditional upon our understanding or comprehending why. The fact God said it is all the motivation we need to trust the Holy Spirit to empower us to cheerfully comply. This is not to say additional reasons and evidence wouldn’t be helpful in understanding why. It’s just that it wouldn’t be necessary to rely on the Holy Spirit to empower us to obey.


Above you spoke of people who obey God on "evidence alone." I asked you what this means. You didn't explain this. Here you're talking about obeying God without evidence.

Regarding an example of slavish obedience, the whole history of the COI is an example of slavish obedience, with the notable exceptions of those who had faith. The Pharisees would be the epitome of slavish obedience.

Regarding the questions of God's existence:

Quote:
God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith. His existence, His character, the truthfulness of His word, are all established by testimony that appeals to our reason; and this testimony is abundant.(SC 105)


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? [Re: Tom] #106950
01/01/09 07:23 PM
01/01/09 07:23 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Here are some statements which deal with the importance of faith based on evidence. How Jesus proceeded on the road to Emmaus is a good example. He didn't just tell them the truth, so that they would believe it "because I said so," but explained things from Scripture, so their faith would be based on evidence, reason and understanding.

The last statement discusses what happens when people do things because "God said so," without understanding why.

Quote:
God does not propose to remove all occasion for unbelief. He gives evidence, which must be carefully investigated with a humble mind and teachable spirit. All should decide from the weight of evidence. (Review and Herald, Sept. 16, 1873)


Quote:
Here is a test which all may apply if they will. None need be left in uncertainty and doubt. There is always sufficient evidence upon which to base an intelligent faith. (Signs of the Times, December 30, 1886)


Quote:
I have been shown that many who profess to have a knowledge of present truth know not what they believe. They do not understand the evidences of their faith. . . . When the time of trial shall come, there are men now preaching to others who will find, upon examining the positions they hold, that there are many things for which they can give no satisfactory reason...

Believers are not to rest in suppositions and ill-defined ideas of what constitutes truth. Their faith must be firmly founded upon the word of God so that when the testing time shall come and they are brought before councils to answer for their faith they may be able to give a reason for the hope that is in them. . .

"It is important that in defending the doctrines which we consider fundamental articles of faith we should never allow ourselves to employ arguments that are not wholly sound. These may avail to silence an opposer but they do not honor the truth. We should present sound arguments, that will not only silence our opponents, but will bear the closest and most searching scrutiny. (5T 707, 708)


Quote:
Faith in a lie will not have a sanctifying influence upon the life or character. No error is truth, or can be made truth by repetition, or by faith in it. Sincerity will never save a soul from the consequences of believing an error. Without sincerity there is no true religion, but sincerity in a false religion will never save a man. I may be perfectly sincere in following a wrong road, but that will not make it the right road, or bring me to the place I wished to reach. The Lord does not want us to have a blind credulity, and call that the faith that sanctifies. The truth is the principle that sanctifies, and therefore it becomes us to know what is truth. We must compare spiritual things with spiritual. We must prove all things, but hold fast only that which is good, that which bears the divine credentials, which lays before us the true motives and principles which should prompt us to action. (2SM 56)


Quote:
He [Christ] maintained his disguise till he had interpreted the Scriptures, and had led them to an intelligent faith in his life, his character, his mission to earth, and his death and resurrection. He wished the truth to take firm root in their minds, not because it was supported by his personal testimony, but because the typical law, and the prophets of the Old Testament, agreeing with the facts of his life and death, presented unquestionable evidence of that truth." (Spirit of Prophecy, vol. 3, p. 214)


Quote:
Christ saw that something must be done. Numerous ceremonies were enjoined upon the people without the proper instruction as to their import. The worshipers offered their sacrifices without understanding that they were typical of the only perfect Sacrifice. And among them, unrecognized and unhonored, stood the One symbolized by all their service. He had given directions in regard to the offerings. He understood their symbolical value, and He saw that they were now perverted and misunderstood. Spiritual worship was fast disappearing. No link bound the priests and rulers to their God. Christ’s work was to establish an altogether different worship. (DA 157)


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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