I know this wasn't for me, but I didn't understand this question, and I don't think I'm the only one who would have difficulties with this. Could you try it again please?

Seems completely clear to me!

Oh well. I'll try to explain.
MM said, through several posts, that before Jesus came in the flesh, that same Jesus was the one acting in the Old Testament. The one killing, slaughtering, flooding, commanding to be killed, maiming, torturing men, women and children. Then, Jesus came in the flesh and He was always kind, gentle, peace loving, and self-sacrificing. Then, Jesus went back to heaven where 40 years later He let Jerusalem suffer and perish by withdrawing His protection with the implication that it was His will or just another means in His arsenal to inflict pain and death upon others.

Hence my question. Jesus seems to be affected by His environment. Sometimes He is vengeful and hateful. Other times He is loving and kind. So, if we are in Heaven and everything is going along fine, then something different should happen (my example of going to a different location), suddenly we see, and not just see but may experience, His dark side. And, depending upon the location or circumstances, it could be very much worse than ever seen before.

Can we trust Jesus if we have the view that location matters to His character?

(Is that clear?)

Regarding whether God punishes or not, I came across the following in 6T, page 369- which I thought could apply in concept.

It is talking about health reform:

A question that I believe the answer is quite apparent:
If I allow my appetite to control what I put in my body, the temple of God, who is going to punish or penalize me?

Yes, I think your explanation is clear.

In your last post, just above mine, you're getting at an issue I've brought up often. It's the question of arbitrariness on the part of God. Fifield spoke a lot about this in the 1890's. There is someone else who spoke of this in the 1870's as well, but I don't know the name.

One way of looking at things is that there is a law of cause and effect involved, and God works to educate us to how these laws work. When we understand the laws, we can perceive God to be acting in harmony with how Jesus acted while here with us in the flesh, and yet have these bad things happen to people.

Another way of looking at things is that God is superseding the laws of cause and effect. This is what MM is suggesting. There is not natural connection between A and B, but God punishes those who do A by doing B to them, for just reasons. If there is no cause and effect, then God's doing B is arbitrary.

"Arbitrary" is the best word for this, since it accurately conveys the idea or principle involved. Unfortunately, many people do not understand the primary meaning of "arbitrary," and understand it simply to mean "capricious" or "whimsical," as opposed to "imposed," which is precisely what happens if God does B to those who do A, and there is no cause and effect relationship between A and B.

israel said "we have no king but caesar" and "his blood be upon us and our children" it would be hardly fair to blame Jesus who spent his life trying to avoid such a result;when caesar destroyed jerusalem he was their chosen king

That's a good point.

while he walked this earth Jesus left us an example of how we are to be just and merciful.As our creator His dealings are merciful and just.we cannot read the heart {which scripture says is "desperately wicked"}however hebrews 4;12 tells us God reads the secrets of mens hearts.As at the flood when sin reigned in mens minds they would not repent so their lives were taken that others may have an opportunity which they spurned.you will notice that as iniquity increases the lives of men women and children become more miserable,this is how satan would have it he is miserable ,his angels are miserable they argue and fight,only in the destruction of good are they united;when God ends an existance that will only become more miserable and spread its taint all over He is just and merciful

Did He employ it in the OT? If so, why didn’t He do it in the NT?


The evil angels sought Jesus’ permission. His consent resulted in pigs drowning; otherwise, the pigs would not have died. Jesus is culpable.


Are you arguing that your story illustrates that the Jews understood God’s will concerning the Sabbath-breaker and the blasphemer? If so, why did they tell Moses to inquire of God? And, why did God command the Jews to kill them?


Again, you seem to be saying, yes, polygamy is a sin, and yes, God permitted the Jews to practice polygamy contrary to His will.

It requires both the OT and NT to fully understand God's self-revelation. However, there is much we cannot understand about God because of our finite, sinful state. I fully expect to discover new and exciting things about God in heaven and throughout eternity.

Romans
11:33 O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! how unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past finding out!
11:34 For who hath known the mind of the Lord? or who hath been his counsellor?

PS - Can you think of anything Jesus did in the OT that He didn't do while here in the flesh?

The Jews did not suffer and die until Jesus withdrew His protection and permitted evil angels to inspire the Romans to wipe them out. They could have lingered on “forever” if Jesus had continued prohibiting the evil angels and the Romans from destroying the Jews.


I agree. It is God who ends their existence. And His actions are merciful and justifiable. He employs many and varied ways of causing death and destruction. Listen:

A single angel destroyed all the first-born of the Egyptians and filled the land with mourning. When David offended against God by numbering the people, one angel caused that terrible destruction by which his sin was punished. The same destructive power exercised by holy angels when God commands, will be exercised by evil angels when He permits. There are forces now ready, and only waiting the divine permission, to spread desolation everywhere. {GC 614.2}