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Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command?
[Re: Tom]
#108324
02/13/09 08:22 PM
02/13/09 08:22 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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T: She said they brought light we would not have had unless someone else had brought it.
M: This doesn’t mean the light was nonexistent prior to J&W. Otherwise, the Bible is not a sufficient guide unto all truth and salvation.
T: That doesn't follow it all. Light is progressive. The fact that the Lord is constantly sending new light does not mean the Bible is not a sufficient guide. Are you suggesting J&W received and shared light not found in the Bible or in the SOP? Please explain. T: I don't understand what you have against Jones and Waggoner. That others did things Jones and Waggoner did as well does not mean that Jones and Waggoner did not do things that others did.
M: There is nothing new under the sun, Tom.
T: Then there's no need to quote Ellen White, right? Wrong. God used the SOP to help us understand the Bible – not to add to the Bible. Do you agree? If not, please explain why. M: J&W didn’t share anything that wasn’t first shared by someone else, especially in the Bible. What I have against J&W is their writing style. I prefer how Ellen shared the same message.
T: I can't say anything about any personal preferences you may have, but Ellen White's opinion was that Waggoner could explain righteousness by faith better than she. Of course, you're free to disagree with her. She is entitled to her opinion, but I happen to think she explains it better than he does. What she said about Waggoner was not a, Thus saith the Lord, as if God is mandating reading Waggoner’s explanation instead of White’s. M: Yeah, that seems more to the point. Thank you for sharing. By the way, this just occurred to me, do you see a connection between John’s expression “the works of the devil” and Paul’s expression “the works of the flesh”? Here’s the context of Paul’s expression:
Galatians 5:19 Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are [these]; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness, 5:20 Idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies, 5:21 Envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told [you] in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God.
T: I think the works of the flesh are the result of the works of the devil. The work of the devil is primarily to foster unbelief -- distrust of God. If we don't trust God (love Him, believe in Him, live by His principles) the works of the flesh will follow. How, then, did Jesus destroy the works of the devil (using your definition) while He was here in the flesh? M: The GC, therefore, will not end favorably for God until the 144,000 demonstrate the truth and benefit of obeying God’s law. That’s when Satan will finally be compelled to admit that he has been wrong all along about God and His law.
T: The cross was the deciding event that secured the universe.
M: True, but I was addressing a different issue. 1) Jesus Himself could not prove beyond question that sinners can experience rebirth and live without sinning for the simple reason He never sinned and experienced rebirth. 2) This aspect of the GC can only be settled by born again sinners. 3) Jesus cannot win the GC until this happens. 4) And, the universe will not be secure until after it happens. 5) But it is as good as done because God said it will happen.
T: I disagree with this, especially the last two sentences. The penultimate sentence I disagree with because we've been told that the universe has been made eternally secure by the cross. This is something which already happened. It is not something yet future. Are you suggesting unfallen beings would be secure even if Jesus fails to produce the 144,000? And, what about the first point I made above? ”The argument he had brought forward, that self-denial was impossible with God, and therefore unjustly required from His created intelligences, was forever answered. Satan's claims were forever set aside. The heavenly universe was secured in eternal allegiance. (The Review and Herald, March 12, 1901; the context is speaking of the cross)
T: The last sentence I disagree with [#5 above] because if the GC could be resolved simply by God's saying something, there would have been no need to fight it in the first place. Take a closer look at the five points listed above. I didn’t say the GC could have been won by a word. The quote you posted above is founded on the fact God will win the GC in the way I described above. M: Where does it say the law requires anything? As you like to argue – “The law is not a sentient being.” Of course, the SOP describes the law requiring obedience and condemning disobedience and requiring God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin. But, to answer your question, I don’t know where the law requires anything (other than what God said about it through the SOP).
T: I was actually thinking of Scripture here. That is, I was asking where in Scripture does the law require death for sinning? I think what Scripture does is describe what happens to those who sin; they die. For example, "The soul that sins shall die" or "and sin, when it is finished, brings forth death" or "The wages of sin is death" (also translated "Sin pages its wages: death") or "the sting of death is sin." I like how your typo above rhymes. Yes, the Bible says the wages of sin is death, but it also goes on to spell out how, when, where, and why. That the law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin is clearly explained in the SOP. M: To add to what I posted above in response to your second question I also believe even if sinners had regular access to the tree of life they would die if someone lopped off their head. But it is clear that sin itself is not the reason sinners die.
T: So sin does not result in death.
M: Under certain circumstances sin results in the first death, but not in the second death. In order for the second death to occur, God must first resurrect sinners. It cannot happen naturally.
T: Here's why I disagree with this idea. In the first chapter of the Desire of Ages, the "law of life for the universe," is described, which is a law of giving. She speaks of "the circuit of beneficence" which is what she identifies as the "law of life." Now sin is in its essence selfishness. Selfishness is the antithesis of love. Selfishness does not give, but takes. As such, selfishness, and hence sin, can only result in death. Selfishness is not a principle which promotes life, but death. I agree that the law of life is taking to give, but I disagree with you that sin results in death. If this were true, then what God said in Genesis 3:22 would have been impossible and therefore untrue. However, God cannot lie. T: Regarding your questions regarding Moses and the Gospel, here's one example. Gal. 3 says, "The Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the Gospel beforehand unto Abraham." This Gospel was recorded by Moses. The Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified. So we see that Moses preached the Gospel, and thus Christ and Him crucified.
Both the books of Romans and Galatians are full of Scriptures from Moses, which Paul used to prove his Gospel. As Moses was held in such high esteem, it was natural that he should do this. None of the passages Paul quoted clearly explain why Jesus had to die. If such passages existed in the Pentateuch you would be posting them profusely and rebuking me for not admitting it. Please, Tom, settle this issue once and forever by quoting from the Pentateuch where Moses plainly explains it. Thank you.
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Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#108345
02/14/09 02:14 AM
02/14/09 02:14 AM
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Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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T: She said they brought light we would not have had unless someone else had brought it.
M: This doesn’t mean the light was nonexistent prior to J&W. Otherwise, the Bible is not a sufficient guide unto all truth and salvation.
T: That doesn't follow it all. Light is progressive. The fact that the Lord is constantly sending new light does not mean the Bible is not a sufficient guide.
M:Are you suggesting J&W received and shared light not found in the Bible or in the SOP? Please explain. As I stated above, she said that Jones and Waggoner brought light that we would not have had unless someone else had brought it. I think that's clear enough. Here's the actual quote: If we place ourselves in a position that we will not recognize the light God sends or His messages to us, then we are in danger of sinning against the Holy Ghost. Then for us to turn and see if we can find some little thing that is done that we can hang some of our doubts upon and begin to question! The question is, has God sent the truth? Has God raised up these men to proclaim the truth? I say, yes, God has sent men to bring us the truth that we should not have had unless God had sent somebody to bring it to us. God has let me have a light of what His Spirit is, and therefore I accept it, and I no more dare to lift my hand against these persons, because it would be against Jesus Christ, who is to be recognized in His messengers. (1888 Mat. 608; emphasis mine) The underlined portion is something I fear, as I see many who appear to be doing just this very thing. T: I don't understand what you have against Jones and Waggoner. That others did things Jones and Waggoner did as well does not mean that Jones and Waggoner did not do things that others did.
M: There is nothing new under the sun, Tom.
T: Then there's no need to quote Ellen White, right?
M:Wrong. God used the SOP to help us understand the Bible – not to add to the Bible. Do you agree? If not, please explain why. You said there's nothing new under the sun, apparently as an excuse to dismiss Jones and Waggoner. This same excuse could be used to dismiss the SOP. T: I can't say anything about any personal preferences you may have, but Ellen White's opinion was that Waggoner could explain righteousness by faith better than she. Of course, you're free to disagree with her.
M:She is entitled to her opinion, but I happen to think she explains it better than he does. What she said about Waggoner was not a, Thus saith the Lord, as if God is mandating reading Waggoner’s explanation instead of White’s.
When you agree with something she says, you present it as proof. When you disagree you say some word does not mean what it normally means or dismiss it altogether. T: I think the works of the flesh are the result of the works of the devil. The work of the devil is primarily to foster unbelief -- distrust of God. If we don't trust God (love Him, believe in Him, live by His principles) the works of the flesh will follow.
M:How, then, did Jesus destroy the works of the devil (using your definition) while He was here in the flesh?
Good question! By revealing God's character. 4) And, the universe will not be secure until after it happens. 5) But it is as good as done because God said it will happen.
T: I disagree with this, especially the last two sentences. The penultimate sentence I disagree with because we've been told that the universe has been made eternally secure by the cross. This is something which already happened. It is not something yet future.
M:Are you suggesting unfallen beings would be secure even if Jesus fails to produce the 144,000? And, what about the first point I made above? Ellen White said that the universe was secured by the cross. This is what I was pointing out. T: The last sentence I disagree with [#5 above] because if the GC could be resolved simply by God's saying something, there would have been no need to fight it in the first place.
Take a closer look at the five points listed above. I didn’t say the GC could have been won by a word. The quote you posted above is founded on the fact God will win the GC in the way I described above. You didn't quote what you said, that is, the sentence I was commenting on. You said something to the effect that something was as good as done because God said something. This is what I was responding to. (also translated "Sin pages its wages: death") or "the sting of death is sin."
M:I like how your typo above rhymes. Yes, that's cool. Yes, the Bible says the wages of sin is death, but it also goes on to spell out how, when, where, and why. That the law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin is clearly explained in the SOP.
I asked where in Scripture the law says this. So far, you haven't said. I agree that the law of life is taking to give Not taking to give, but receiving to give. Receiving from the hand of God. , but I disagree with you that sin results in death. If this were true, then what God said in Genesis 3:22 would have been impossible and therefore untrue. However, God cannot lie. I've quoted from the Scriptures, that "sin, when it is finished, brings forth death." Here's how one translation puts it: Lust gets pregnant, and has a baby: sin! Sin grows up to adulthood, and becomes a real killer. (The Message) Here's another: Our desires make us sin, and when sin is finished with us, it leaves us dead. (CEV) Another one: 15then lust, having conceived, gives birth to sin; but sin fully completed brings forth death. (Darby) The most common translation is that sin "gives birth to death." The SOP says that death is "the inevitable result of sin" (DA 764). So it is beyond me how you can assert that sin does not result in death. You've never addressed the argument, as far as I can tell, that selfishness is not a principle which can sustain life. Would you please explain this? To be clear what I'm asking, if sin does not does result in death, as you assert, and sin is in its essence selfishness, then it must be the case that selfishness does not lead to death. I find this idea very odd. None of the passages Paul quoted clearly explain why Jesus had to die. If such passages existed in the Pentateuch you would be posting them profusely and rebuking me for not admitting it. Please, Tom, settle this issue once and forever by quoting from the Pentateuch where Moses plainly explains it. Thank you. 1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified. 2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses. 3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified. Do you agree with these points?
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command?
[Re: Tom]
#108369
02/14/09 11:48 PM
02/14/09 11:48 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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T: I think the works of the flesh are the result of the works of the devil. The work of the devil is primarily to foster unbelief -- distrust of God. If we don't trust God (love Him, believe in Him, live by His principles) the works of the flesh will follow.
M:How, then, did Jesus destroy the works of the devil (using your definition) while He was here in the flesh?
T: Good question! By revealing God's character. How do you define the word “destroyed”? I ask this question because as I look around the world I see plenty of evidence that the works of the devil and the works of the flesh are very much alive and kicking. M:Are you suggesting unfallen beings would be secure even if Jesus fails to produce the 144,000?
T: Ellen White said that the universe was secured by the cross. This is what I was pointing out. I know what you said, and it inspired a different question (see above), which you didn’t answer. If you refuse to answer it in your next response I will ask it again, so please, save me the trouble and just answer it. Thank you. Yes, the Bible says the wages of sin is death, but it also goes on to spell out how, when, where, and why. That the law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin is clearly explained in the SOP.
T: I asked where in Scripture the law says this. So far, you haven't said. I don’t where in the Bible the law says anything about life or death. Do you? The law is rather brief. See Ex 20:3-17. It mostly says what to do and what not to do. It also says, “I the LORD thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me; and showing mercy unto thousands of them that love me, and keep my commandments.” M: I agree that the law of life is taking to give . . .
T: Not taking to give, but receiving to give. Receiving from the hand of God. I had in mind DA 21 “. . . takes to give.” T: The most common translation is that sin "gives birth to death." The SOP says that death is "the inevitable result of sin" (DA 764). So it is beyond me how you can assert that sin does not result in death. You've never addressed the argument, as far as I can tell, that selfishness is not a principle which can sustain life. Would you please explain this? To be clear what I'm asking, if sin does not does result in death, as you assert, and sin is in its essence selfishness, then it must be the case that selfishness does not lead to death. I find this idea very odd. Sin results in “sleep” from which there will be a resurrection “unto condemnation,” which is the “resurrection unto damnation.” None of the passages Paul quoted clearly explain why Jesus had to die. If such passages existed in the Pentateuch you would be posting them profusely and rebuking me for not admitting it. Please, Tom, settle this issue once and forever by quoting from the Pentateuch where Moses plainly explains it. Thank you.
T: Do you agree with these points?
1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified. 2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses. 3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified. No, I don’t agree. Nowhere does Paul quote from the Pentateuch where Moses clearly explains why Jesus had to die. Also, not once does Paul explain in the context of the gospel why Jesus had to die. Nor does he use words crucified and gospel in close proximity. Listen: Romans 2:16 In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel. 16:25 Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began, Galatians 3:8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, [saying], In thee shall all nations be blessed. 2 Thessalonians 1:8 In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ: 1:9 Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power; 2 Timothy 1:10 But is now made manifest by the appearing of our Saviour Jesus Christ, who hath abolished death, and hath brought life and immortality to light through the gospel: 2:8 Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my gospel:
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Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#108370
02/15/09 12:17 AM
02/15/09 12:17 AM
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Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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How do you define the word “destroyed”? I ask this question because as I look around the world I see plenty of evidence that the works of the devil and the works of the flesh are very much alive and kicking. You mean "destroy"? John says that Jesus Christ came to destroy the works of the devil. Immediately after that he said that those who are born again do not continue to sin, so in context to destroy the works of the devil is to free one from sin, which happens to those who are born again, or converted. The reason you see the evidence you do is because many choose not to be converted. M:Are you suggesting unfallen beings would be secure even if Jesus fails to produce the 144,000?
T: Ellen White said that the universe was secured by the cross. This is what I was pointing out.
M:I know what you said, and it inspired a different question (see above), which you didn’t answer. If you refuse to answer it in your next response I will ask it again, so please, save me the trouble and just answer it. Thank you.
No, I wasn't suggesting that. I was suggesting what I said, that the universe was secured by the cross, which is what we were discussing. You said, "4) And, the universe will not be secure until after it happens," so I pointed out the SOP statement that says the universe was secured by the cross, to point out that this is when this happened. T: I asked where in Scripture the law says this. So far, you haven't said.
M:I don’t where in the Bible the law says anything about life or death. Do you? The law is rather brief. See Ex 20:3-17. It mostly says what to do and what not to do. It also says, “I the LORD thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me; and showing mercy unto thousands of them that love me, and keep my commandments.”
I agree with you that the law does not say the things you were claiming it did. I had in mind DA 21 “. . . takes to give.” Ok. T: The most common translation is that sin "gives birth to death." The SOP says that death is "the inevitable result of sin" (DA 764). So it is beyond me how you can assert that sin does not result in death. You've never addressed the argument, as far as I can tell, that selfishness is not a principle which can sustain life. Would you please explain this? To be clear what I'm asking, if sin does not does result in death, as you assert, and sin is in its essence selfishness, then it must be the case that selfishness does not lead to death. I find this idea very odd.
M:Sin results in “sleep” from which there will be a resurrection “unto condemnation,” which is the “resurrection unto damnation.” The death referred to in Scripture is not sleep, but the second death. Anyway, I'm still not understanding how you can think that selfishness could support life. T: Do you agree with these points?
1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified. 2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses. 3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified.
M:No, I don’t agree. Which point do you disagree with? Also, not once does Paul explain in the context of the gospel why Jesus had to die. So you're saying that Paul did not explain Christ's death in the context of the Gospel? So not only Moses didn't explain it, but Paul as well? Do you think anybody did?
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command?
[Re: Tom]
#108414
02/15/09 07:59 PM
02/15/09 07:59 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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M: How do you define the word “destroyed”? I ask this question because as I look around the world I see plenty of evidence that the works of the devil and the works of the flesh are very much alive and kicking.
T: You mean "destroy"? John says that Jesus Christ came to destroy the works of the devil. Immediately after that he said that those who are born again do not continue to sin, so in context to destroy the works of the devil is to free one from sin, which happens to those who are born again, or converted. The reason you see the evidence you do is because many choose not to be converted. Amen! But your explanation applies more to my view of rebirth than it does to yours. According to your view people are born again ignorantly practicing many of the sinful habits they cultivated prior to rebirth. Thus, the works of the devil and the works of the flesh are very much alive and kicking. M:Are you suggesting unfallen beings would be secure even if Jesus fails to produce the 144,000?
T: Ellen White said that the universe was secured by the cross. This is what I was pointing out.
M:I know what you said, and it inspired a different question (see above), which you didn’t answer. If you refuse to answer it in your next response I will ask it again, so please, save me the trouble and just answer it. Thank you.
T: No, I wasn't suggesting that. I was suggesting what I said, that the universe was secured by the cross, which is what we were discussing. You said, "4) And, the universe will not be secure until after it happens," so I pointed out the SOP statement that says the universe was secured by the cross, to point out that this is when this happened. You have an amazing way of making me work like a dog to get you to answer my questions. Reminds me of, "Who's on first?" Let me see if I can ask the question in such a way you feel compelled to answer my question in such a way I never have to ask it again. Unless, of course, you're responding to my question the way I respond to Kland's questions, in which case I will stop asking questions. At any rate, here goes. If the 144,000 fail to materialize, will the universe be secure? Please elaborate. Thank you. T: I asked where in Scripture the law says this. So far, you haven't said.
M:I don’t know where in the Bible the law says anything about life or death. Do you? The law is rather brief. See Ex 20:3-17. It mostly says what to do and what not to do. It also says, “I the LORD thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me; and showing mercy unto thousands of them that love me, and keep my commandments.”
T: I agree with you that the law does not say the things you were claiming it did. I take it, then, that you agree the law doesn't affirm your contradicting view either. Is that right? T: The most common translation is that sin "gives birth to death." The SOP says that death is "the inevitable result of sin" (DA 764). So it is beyond me how you can assert that sin does not result in death. You've never addressed the argument, as far as I can tell, that selfishness is not a principle which can sustain life. Would you please explain this? To be clear what I'm asking, if sin does not does result in death, as you assert, and sin is in its essence selfishness, then it must be the case that selfishness does not lead to death. I find this idea very odd.
M: Sin results in “sleep” from which there will be a resurrection “unto condemnation,” which is the “resurrection unto damnation.”
T: The death referred to in Scripture is not sleep, but the second death. Anyway, I'm still not understanding how you can think that selfishness could support life. If sin results in death, why, then, are people able to live to be 100 years old? Obviously there is something wrong with your observations. Also, if sin results in death, why, then, did God station an angel to prevent sinners from accessing the tree of life? Please answer this question (as opposed to ignoring it). T: Do you agree with these points?
1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified. 2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses. 3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified.
M:No, I don’t agree.
T: Which point do you disagree with? All of them. Paul did not say the gospel is Christ and Him crucified. Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham. And, nowhere did Moses say Jesus would die. M: Also, not once does Paul explain in the context of the gospel why Jesus had to die.
T: So you're saying that Paul did not explain Christ's death in the context of the Gospel? So not only Moses didn't explain it, but Paul as well? Do you think anybody did? Apparently you agree with me since you have been unwilling, and mostly likely unable, to post passages which clearly explain why Jesus had to die. I've asked this question zillions of times and you have consistently refused to answer it. You are reduced to using logical deduction, which hasn't proven logical at all. Put the issue to rest by simply posting all those passages you keep alluding to but never post. By the way, yes, I do think somebody has explained it clearly.
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Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#108421
02/15/09 11:01 PM
02/15/09 11:01 PM
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Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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Amen! But your explanation applies more to my view of rebirth than it does to yours. According to your view people are born again ignorantly practicing many of the sinful habits they cultivated prior to rebirth. Thus, the works of the devil and the works of the flesh are very much alive and kicking. Don't you believe that people may be born again ignorantly practicing sinful habits, like smoking, Sabbath-breaking, drinking, polygamy, living together? M:I know what you said, and it inspired a different question (see above), which you didn’t answer. If you refuse to answer it in your next response I will ask it again, so please, save me the trouble and just answer it. Thank you.
T: No, I wasn't suggesting that. I was suggesting what I said, that the universe was secured by the cross, which is what we were discussing. You said, "4) And, the universe will not be secure until after it happens," so I pointed out the SOP statement that says the universe was secured by the cross, to point out that this is when this happened.
You have an amazing way of making me work like a dog to get you to answer my questions. You have an amazing way of not acknowledging when you're in error. You've been saying the universe has not been made secure, but the SOP says it was made secure by the cross. Before jumping to some new question, it would be nice if you would acknowledge points on questions which have already been raised. Unless, of course, you're responding to my question the way I respond to Kland's questions, in which case I will stop asking questions. What does this mean? If the 144,000 fail to materialize, will the universe be secure? Please elaborate. Thank you. I don't see this as a possibility. It would be like asking, "If Jesus Christ did not come again, will the universe be secure?" Certainly the answer is no, the universe would not be secure if Jesus Christ did not come again, but does that mean the universe is not secure now? I don't think so, especially since we've been told that the universe was made secure by the cross. T: I agree with you that the law does not say the things you were claiming it did.
M:I take it, then, that you agree the law doesn't affirm your contradicting view either. Is that right? What? You're asserting the law says something. I asked where. You then say it doesn't, which I agree with. My view is that you're view was wrong. If you agree with me that you were wrong, then we're in agreement. T: The death referred to in Scripture is not sleep, but the second death. Anyway, I'm still not understanding how you can think that selfishness could support life.
M:If sin results in death, why, then, are people able to live to be 100 years old? As I've pointed out to you many times, this is dealing with the second death. Obviously there is something wrong with your observations. Perhaps there's something wrong with your comprehension. Also, if sin results in death, why, then, did God station an angel to prevent sinners from accessing the tree of life? Please answer this question (as opposed to ignoring it).
MM, you keep asking the same things over and over again. I answered this in great detail. It's not ignoring your question if I answer it and you forget what I said. In brief, that sin results in death is not in doubt: Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin.(DA 764) This says that had Satan been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have died. Furthermore it calls death "the inevitable result of sin." So that death is the inevitable result of sin is clear. Regarding why God did not want Adam and Eve to eat of the tree of life, it is because He did not want to perpetuate suffering. After the GC is ended, and Christ comes again, then a world can exist without misery and suffering, and life can be perpetuated without reservation. T: Do you agree with these points?
1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified. 2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses. 3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified.
M:No, I don’t agree.
T: Which point do you disagree with?
All of them. Paul did not say the gospel is Christ and Him crucified. Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham. And, nowhere did Moses say Jesus would die. Ok, let's look at each point. First of all, that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified. For I determined not to know any thing among you, save Jesus Christ, and him crucified' (1 Corinthians 2:2). Here Paul says he was determined to know nothing except Jesus Christ and Him crucified. A few verses earlier he wrote: For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel—not with wisdom and eloquence, lest the cross of Christ be emptied of its power.(1 Cor. 1:17) I think this should be sufficient to establish point 1, since Paul was determined to know nothing but Jesus Christ and Him crucified, and while saying this he was preaching the Gospel, the presentation of which meant the cross of Christ being presented with power. Regarding point 2, that Paul says that the Gospel was reached to Abraham: And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.(Gal. 3:8) So this established point 2. Regarding point 3, that this is recorded in Moses, this is also established in the above quote, since Paul was quoting Moses to establish that the Gospel was preached to Abraham. M: Also, not once does Paul explain in the context of the gospel why Jesus had to die.
T: So you're saying that Paul did not explain Christ's death in the context of the Gospel? So not only Moses didn't explain it, but Paul as well? Do you think anybody did?
M:Apparently you agree with me since you have been unwilling, and mostly likely unable, to post passages which clearly explain why Jesus had to die. I've asked this question zillions of times and you have consistently refused to answer it. I've answered it repeatedly. I've pointed you to specific passages. I've quoted specific verses. You're free to disagree, and continue asserting that neither Moses nor Paul explained why Jesus had to die, but it's not just to assert I am "consistently refusing" to answer your question. I've suggested you take a look at Galatians 3 and Romans 4. Here's something from Romans 4: 23The words "it was credited to him" were written not for him alone, 24but also for us, to whom God will credit righteousness—for us who believe in him who raised Jesus our Lord from the dead. 25He was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification. 2 Cor. 5:21 tells us that Christ was made to be sin for us that we might be made the righteousness of God. In Romans 3 Paul wrote: 25God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— 26he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus. Surely you've read these things. I don't understand how you can read Paul and not understand that his Gospel explains why Jesus Christ had to die. I've never heard anyone suggest this. There's certainly no point in discussing Moses if you can't see Christ's death explained in Paul's preaching. You are reduced to using logical deduction, which hasn't proven logical at all. Put the issue to rest by simply posting all those passages you keep alluding to but never post.
By the way, yes, I do think somebody has explained it clearly. But not Paul? Or Moses? How about Jesus Christ? Did He explain it? Or any Scripture writer? Is there any Scripture writer that you see as explaining why Christ had to die? If so, who?
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command?
[Re: Tom]
#108453
02/16/09 05:26 PM
02/16/09 05:26 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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M: Amen! But your explanation applies more to my view of rebirth than it does to yours. According to your view people are born again ignorantly practicing many of the sinful habits they cultivated prior to rebirth. Thus, the works of the devil and the works of the flesh are very much alive and kicking.
T: Don't you believe that people may be born again ignorantly practicing sinful habits, like smoking, Sabbath-breaking, drinking, polygamy, living together? Yes, and in such cases some of the works of the devil are alive and kicking. However, I also happen to believe there are times when people experience rebirth (i.e. old man habits crucified) and conversion (i.e. obeying everything Jesus commanded) simultaneously. In such cases, the works of the devil are destroyed. Your view does not allow for such cases. M:I know what you said, and it inspired a different question (see above), which you didn’t answer. If you refuse to answer it in your next response I will ask it again, so please, save me the trouble and just answer it. Thank you.
T: No, I wasn't suggesting that. I was suggesting what I said, that the universe was secured by the cross, which is what we were discussing. You said, "4) And, the universe will not be secure until after it happens," so I pointed out the SOP statement that says the universe was secured by the cross, to point out that this is when this happened.
M: You have an amazing way of making me work like a dog to get you to answer my questions.
T: You have an amazing way of not acknowledging when you're in error. You've been saying the universe has not been made secure, but the SOP says it was made secure by the cross. Before jumping to some new question, it would be nice if you would acknowledge points on questions which have already been raised. I believe the universe was made secure at the cross. I also believe it has been secure from the moment Jesus became the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. I also believe it hinges on the 144,000 demonstrating the benefits of Jesus’ blood during the time of trouble. All these things have been living realities in minds of unfallen beings since the day Jesus first proclaimed them. M: Unless, of course, you're responding to my question the way I respond to Kland's questions, in which case I will stop asking questions.
T: What does this mean? I don’t enjoy his questions and comments, and I answer them briefly just to be nice. His posts are not rewarding to read. If you feel this way about me, please let me know, and you’ll never hear from me again. M: If the 144,000 fail to materialize, will the universe be secure? Please elaborate. Thank you.
T: I don't see this as a possibility. It would be like asking, "If Jesus Christ did not come again, will the universe be secure?" Certainly the answer is no, the universe would not be secure if Jesus Christ did not come again, but does that mean the universe is not secure now? I don't think so, especially since we've been told that the universe was made secure by the cross. Thank you for answering my question thoroughly and forthrightly. It sounds to me, though, that although the cross made the universe secure you believe their security would be forfeited if the 144,000 fail to materialize and Jesus does not return. But you also believe failure is not a possibility. Given what you believe about God’s knowledge of the future, how can you be personally so sure the 144,000 will succeed? T: I agree with you that the law does not say the things you were claiming it did.
M:I take it, then, that you agree the law doesn't affirm your contradicting view either. Is that right?
T: What? You're asserting the law says something. I asked where. You then say it doesn't, which I agree with. My view is that you're view was wrong. If you agree with me that you were wrong, then we're in agreement. Of course we both know my view isn’t wrong because it is confirmed through the SOP. Agreeing with you that the Bible doesn’t portray the law as saying anything about life and death isn’t the same thing as saying I don’t believe the law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin. Listen: Justice demands that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed. God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, met both these requirements. By dying in man's stead, Christ exhausted the penalty and provided a pardon. {AG 139.2} Fallen man, because of his guilt, could no longer come directly before God with his supplications; for his transgression of the divine law had placed an impassable barrier between the holy God and the transgressor. But a plan was devised that the sentence of death should rest upon a Substitute. In the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood, for death must come in consequence of man's sin. The beasts for sacrificial offerings were to prefigure Christ. In the slain victim, man was to see the fulfillment for the time being of God's word, "Thou shalt surely die." {Con 21.3} T: The death referred to in Scripture is not sleep, but the second death. Anyway, I'm still not understanding how you can think that selfishness could support life.
M: If sin results in death, why, then, are people able to live to be 100 years old?
T: As I've pointed out to you many times, this is dealing with the second death.
M: Obviously there is something wrong with your observations.
T: Perhaps there's something wrong with your comprehension.
M: Also, if sin results in death, why, then, did God station an angel to prevent sinners from accessing the tree of life? Please answer this question (as opposed to ignoring it).
T: MM, you keep asking the same things over and over again. I answered this in great detail. It's not ignoring your question if I answer it and you forget what I said.
In brief, that sin results in death is not in doubt: Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin.(DA 764)
This says that had Satan been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have died. Furthermore it calls death "the inevitable result of sin." So that death is the inevitable result of sin is clear.
Regarding why God did not want Adam and Eve to eat of the tree of life, it is because He did not want to perpetuate suffering. After the GC is ended, and Christ comes again, then a world can exist without misery and suffering, and life can be perpetuated without reservation. In the past (can’t quote where) you’ve suggested something to the effect that God supernaturally prevents sinners from succumbing to the natural cause and effect relationship that exists between sin and death, namely, instant death, and that His intervention allows sinners to die a gradual first death. And, of course, I agree with this insight. However, I also happen to believe denying sinners access to the tree of life is what made these unusual measures necessary. You seem unwilling to acknowledge the fact if God had not barred access to the tree of life that sinners would have been immortal. Listen: They were visited by angels, and were granted communion with their Maker, with no obscuring veil between. They were full of the vigor imparted by the tree of life, and their intellectual power was but little less than that of the angels.--Patriarchs and Prophets, pp. 45-50. {RC 135.5} [Our first parents] were to enjoy communion with God and with holy angels; but . . . their loyalty must be tested. . . . Obedience, perfect and perpetual, was the condition of eternal happiness. On this condition he [man] was to have access to the tree of life.--Ibid., pp. 48, 49. {RC 135.6} In order to possess an endless existence, man must continue to partake of the tree of life. Deprived of this, his vitality would gradually diminish until life should become extinct. . . . He [Satan] hoped that they would eat of the tree of life. . . . But after man's fall, holy angels were immediately commissioned to guard the tree of life. . . . None of the family of Adam were permitted to pass that barrier to partake of the life-giving fruit; hence there is not an immortal sinner.--Ibid., p. 60. {RC 135.7} T: Do you agree with these points?
1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified. 2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses. 3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified.
M: No, I don’t agree.
T: Which point do you disagree with?
M: All of them. Paul did not say the gospel is Christ and Him crucified. Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham. And, nowhere did Moses say Jesus would die.
T: Ok, let's look at each point. First of all, that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified. “For I determined not to know any thing among you, save Jesus Christ, and him crucified. (1 Corinthians 2:2).
Here Paul says he was determined to know nothing except Jesus Christ and Him crucified. A few verses earlier he wrote: “For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel—not with wisdom and eloquence, lest the cross of Christ be emptied of its power. (1 Cor. 1:17)
I think this should be sufficient to establish point 1, since Paul was determined to know nothing but Jesus Christ and Him crucified, and while saying this he was preaching the Gospel, the presentation of which meant the cross of Christ being presented with power. Yes, the gospel, of course, includes Christ and Him crucified. But it includes many other things as well. Just read the rest of Corinthians and you’ll see what I mean. IOW, the gospel embraces every aspect of life. My point is Paul didn’t use the words “gospel” and “crucified” in the same context. M: Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham.
T: Regarding point 2, that Paul says that the Gospel was reached to Abraham: “And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed. (Gal. 3:8) So this established point 2. Yes, of course, Paul said it. But my point is Moses didn’t say what Paul said about it. I wrote, “Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham.” Please bear in mind I’ve been asking you all along to prove from the Pentateuch that Jesus had to die or that Moses said the sacrificial animals symbolize the death of Jesus. That’s what your list above is designed to prove – not that Paul believed it. M: And, nowhere did Moses say Jesus would die.
T: Regarding point 3, that this is recorded in Moses, this is also established in the above quote, since Paul was quoting Moses to establish that the Gospel was preached to Abraham. Again, I’m not asking you to prove Paul believed it; instead, I’m asking you to prove Moses plainly taught it. M: Also, not once does Paul explain in the context of the gospel why Jesus had to die.
T: So you're saying that Paul did not explain Christ's death in the context of the Gospel? So not only Moses didn't explain it, but Paul as well? Do you think anybody did?
M: Apparently you agree with me since you have been unwilling, and mostly likely unable, to post passages which clearly explain why Jesus had to die. I've asked this question zillions of times and you have consistently refused to answer it.
T: I've answered it repeatedly. I've pointed you to specific passages. I've quoted specific verses. You're free to disagree, and continue asserting that neither Moses nor Paul explained why Jesus had to die, but it's not just to assert I am "consistently refusing" to answer your question. I've suggested you take a look at Galatians 3 and Romans 4. And I responded to these posts and demonstrated how they do not say what you are asserting. Your saying so doesn’t make it so. T: Here's something from Romans 4: 23 The words "it was credited to him" were written not for him alone, 24but also for us, to whom God will credit righteousness—for us who believe in him who raised Jesus our Lord from the dead. 25He was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification. This describes what Jesus did – but not why He had to do it. T: 2 Cor. 5:21 tells us that Christ was made to be sin for us that we might be made the righteousness of God. Same comment as above. T: In Romans 3 Paul wrote: 25God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— 26he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.
Surely you've read these things. I don't understand how you can read Paul and not understand that his Gospel explains why Jesus Christ had to die. I've never heard anyone suggest this. There's certainly no point in discussing Moses if you can't see Christ's death explained in Paul's preaching. Here’s what Paul actually said (as opposed to what you quoted above): 3:24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: 3:25 Whom God hath set forth [to be] a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; 3:26 To declare, [I say], at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus. Again, this describes what Jesus accomplished – but not why He had to die. I agree it is implied, but it certainly isn’t plainly stated. Moses never even came close to implying why Jesus had to die. And you know it. M: You are reduced to using logical deduction, which hasn't proven logical at all. Put the issue to rest by simply posting all those passages you keep alluding to but never post. By the way, yes, I do think somebody has explained it clearly.
T: But not Paul? Or Moses? How about Jesus Christ? Did He explain it? Or any Scripture writer? Is there any Scripture writer that you see as explaining why Christ had to die? If so, who? None of the people you named above clearly explain why Jesus had to die. They simply say He suffered and died with our sins on the cross. The SOP is the only place where God has clearly explained why Jesus had to die. BTW, let’s not forget the real reason why I brought this up – I believe the fact Moses did not give the Jews better reasons for obeying God (as it relates to sacrificing animals) than merely, Because He said so, it proves it is possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for commanding obedience, and that such is not slavish.
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Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#108455
02/16/09 06:17 PM
02/16/09 06:17 PM
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Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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M: Amen! But your explanation applies more to my view of rebirth than it does to yours. According to your view people are born again ignorantly practicing many of the sinful habits they cultivated prior to rebirth. Thus, the works of the devil and the works of the flesh are very much alive and kicking.
T: Don't you believe that people may be born again ignorantly practicing sinful habits, like smoking, Sabbath-breaking, drinking, polygamy, living together?
M:Yes, and in such cases some of the works of the devil are alive and kicking. However, I also happen to believe there are times when people experience rebirth (i.e. old man habits crucified) and conversion (i.e. obeying everything Jesus commanded) simultaneously. In such cases, the works of the devil are destroyed. Your view does not allow for such cases. Agreed. I don't believe in this idea of instant sanctification or perfection of character. T: You have an amazing way of not acknowledging when you're in error. You've been saying the universe has not been made secure, but the SOP says it was made secure by the cross. Before jumping to some new question, it would be nice if you would acknowledge points on questions which have already been raised.
M:I believe the universe was made secure at the cross. I also believe it has been secure from the moment Jesus became the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. I also believe it hinges on the 144,000 demonstrating the benefits of Jesus’ blood during the time of trouble. All these things have been living realities in minds of unfallen beings since the day Jesus first proclaimed them. Inspiration supports the first "I believe," but not the other two. At least, DA 764 says clearly that the cross secured the universe, making very clear that before the cross the universe was not secured, but after the cross it was. If the cross already secured it, then it cannot hinge on something yet future. M: Unless, of course, you're responding to my question the way I respond to Kland's questions, in which case I will stop asking questions.
T: What does this mean?
M:I don’t enjoy his questions and comments, and I answer them briefly just to be nice. His posts are not rewarding to read. If you feel this way about me, please let me know, and you’ll never hear from me again. If I didn't want to converse with you, I simply wouldn't respond to your posts. Why do you not find kland's posts rewarding to read? Since you're responding out of a desire to be nice, it would be more nice, IMO, if you're responses had more to them. Thank you for answering my question thoroughly and forthrightly. It sounds to me, though, that although the cross made the universe secure you believe their security would be forfeited if the 144,000 fail to materialize and Jesus does not return. But you also believe failure is not a possibility. Given what you believe about God’s knowledge of the future, how can you be personally so sure the 144,000 will succeed? Given God knows every possible future, and given that in every possible future the 144,000 materialize, it will surely come to pass. The details can change (e.g., this could have happened shortly after the 1888 message) but not that fact of its happening. Of course we both know my view isn’t wrong because it is confirmed through the SOP. Agreeing with you that the Bible doesn’t portray the law as saying anything about life and death isn’t the same thing as saying I don’t believe the law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin.
Ok, so your idea is that this isn't in the law itself, or in Scripture, but Ellen White had this idea, and it's true because she had the idea, although it's not in the law itself, nor in Scripture? In the past (can’t quote where) you’ve suggested something to the effect that God supernaturally prevents sinners from succumbing to the natural cause and effect relationship that exists between sin and death, namely, instant death, and that His intervention allows sinners to die a gradual first death. And, of course, I agree with this insight. However, I also happen to believe denying sinners access to the tree of life is what made these unusual measures necessary. You seem unwilling to acknowledge the fact if God had not barred access to the tree of life that sinners would have been immortal. This would have required continuously eating of the tree of life, not a one time eating. The tree of life is immaterial to this whole question. Life comes from God, not from a tree. The point is that God, if He chose, could indefinitely prolong the existence of beings who have chosen to sin, but this isn't something which God chooses to do. He gives people the opportunity to develop their character, which is explained in the DA 764 quote. This quote points out the following: Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin. There's absolutely nothing about a tree involved here! Death is "the inevitable result of sin," again, having nothing to do with any tree. Yes, the gospel, of course, includes Christ and Him crucified. But it includes many other things as well. Just read the rest of Corinthians and you’ll see what I mean. IOW, the gospel embraces every aspect of life. My point is Paul didn’t use the words “gospel” and “crucified” in the same context. The gospel, as well as Christ and Him crucified, encompassed everything in Paul's thinking. This is a useful principle in understanding his writings. If you look at Gal. 3, the first third of the chapter or so, you will see that Paul is simultaneously speaking of the Gospel and Christ crucified. In fact, to Paul, Christ crucified was the Gospel. By the way, Ellen White had the same thought as Paul, writing something to the effect that Christ hanging on the cross was the Gospel. Romans 3 is another example where the Gospel and Christ crucified are used in the same context. Romans 4 is another. Romans 10 is another (see especially vss. 9,10 to the end of the chapter). M: Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham.
T: Regarding point 2, that Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham: “And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed. (Gal. 3:8) So this established point 2.
Yes, of course, Paul said it. But my point is Moses didn’t say what Paul said about it. I wrote, “Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham.” Please bear in mind I’ve been asking you all along to prove from the Pentateuch that Jesus had to die or that Moses said the sacrificial animals symbolize the death of Jesus. That’s what your list above is designed to prove – not that Paul believed it. You said you disagree with each point. Point 2 was that Paul said the Gospel was preached to Abraham. You were wrong to say you disagreed with this point, since you agree with it. M: And, nowhere did Moses say Jesus would die.
T: Regarding point 3, that this is recorded in Moses, this is also established in the above quote, since Paul was quoting Moses to establish that the Gospel was preached to Abraham.
Again, I’m not asking you to prove Paul believed it; instead, I’m asking you to prove Moses plainly taught it. Paul thought he did. So did Jesus Christ. M: Apparently you agree with me since you have been unwilling, and mostly likely unable, to post passages which clearly explain why Jesus had to die. I've asked this question zillions of times and you have consistently refused to answer it.
T: I've answered it repeatedly. I've pointed you to specific passages. I've quoted specific verses. You're free to disagree, and continue asserting that neither Moses nor Paul explained why Jesus had to die, but it's not just to assert I am "consistently refusing" to answer your question. I've suggested you take a look at Galatians 3 and Romans 4.
M:And I responded to these posts and demonstrated how they do not say what you are asserting. Your saying so doesn’t make it so. You wrote, "I've asked this question zillions of times and you have consistently refused to answer it." If I've responded to your question, and you've responded to my posts with some sort of rebuttal, this proves on the face of it that your assertion here is false. I'm hardly refusing to answer your question if you're having to come up with rebuttals to my answers. To use your words, "you're saying so doesn't make it so." It's clear I have not been "consistently refusing" to answer your question, so it would be nice if you would refrain from saying things like this which you know to be false. T: Here's something from Romans 4: 23 The words "it was credited to him" were written not for him alone, 24but also for us, to whom God will credit righteousness—for us who believe in him who raised Jesus our Lord from the dead. 25He was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification.
M:This describes what Jesus did – but not why He had to do it. "He was delivered over to death for our sins and raised to life for our justification" explains why. The "for our sins" and "for our justification" is dealing with why. T: 2 Cor. 5:21 tells us that Christ was made to be sin for us that we might be made the righteousness of God.
M:Same comment as above. That "we might be made the righteousness of God" is why. T: In Romans 3 Paul wrote: 25God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— 26he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.
Surely you've read these things. I don't understand how you can read Paul and not understand that his Gospel explains why Jesus Christ had to die. I've never heard anyone suggest this. There's certainly no point in discussing Moses if you can't see Christ's death explained in Paul's preaching.
M:Here’s what Paul actually said (as opposed to what you quoted above):
3:24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: 3:25 Whom God hath set forth [to be] a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; 3:26 To declare, [I say], at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus. You know Jesus didn't actually speak in King James English. I quoted one translation while you quoted another. It's absurd to quote one English translation over another and say this is "what Jesus actually said." You'd be better off quoting Greek, if you want to say "what Jesus actually said," but even doing that wouldn't be right because Jesus didn't actually speak in Greek, but at least it would be closer to the truth. But to say, when I quote Scripture, that Jesus Christ didn't actually say what I said, but said something else which is simply another English translation isn't a reasonable assertion. Again, this describes what Jesus accomplished – but not why He had to die. I agree it is implied, but it certainly isn’t plainly stated. It is plainly stated. This was Paul's whole purpose, to plainly state why Jesus Christ had to die, and he did so. Christ died to declare God's righteousness that He might be just and the justified of all who believe in Him. That's clearly stated. Moses never even came close to implying why Jesus had to die. And you know it. We were talking about Paul. If you don't think Paul taught why Christ had to die, you certainly wouldn't believe Moses did. There's not even a point to discussing Moses if we can't agree regarding Paul. None of the people you named above clearly explain why Jesus had to die. They simply say He suffered and died with our sins on the cross. The SOP is the only place where God has clearly explained why Jesus had to die. Sounds like a good new topic for a thread! Was the world ignorant of why Jesus Christ had to die until the latter half of the 19th century when Ellen White explained why. BTW, let’s not forget the real reason why I brought this up – I believe the fact Moses did not give the Jews better reasons for obeying God (as it relates to sacrificing animals) than merely, Because He said so, it proves it is possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for commanding obedience, and that such is not slavish. I think we can forget this for the time being. If you don't believe that Paul, or John, or Jesus Christ, explained why Christ had to die, we have more important things to talk about.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command?
[Re: Tom]
#108579
02/18/09 03:38 PM
02/18/09 03:38 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
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Southwest USA
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T: Don't you believe that people may be born again ignorantly practicing sinful habits, like smoking, Sabbath-breaking, drinking, polygamy, living together?
M: Yes, and in such cases some of the works of the devil are alive and kicking. However, I also happen to believe there are times when people experience rebirth (i.e. old man habits crucified) and conversion (i.e. obeying everything Jesus commanded) simultaneously. In such cases, the works of the devil are destroyed. Your view does not allow for such cases.
T: Agreed. I don't believe in this idea of instant sanctification or perfection of character. I haven’t described instant sanctification or instant character perfection. I’m simply referring to the following state of experience: The life of the vine will be manifest in fragrant fruit on the branches. "He that abideth in Me," said Jesus, "and I in him, the same bringeth forth much fruit: for without Me ye can do nothing." When we live by faith on the Son of God, the fruits of the Spirit will be seen in our lives; not one will be missing. {DA 676.4}
God will accept only those who are determined to aim high. He places every human agent under obligation to do his best. Moral perfection is required of all. Never should we lower the standard of righteousness in order to accommodate inherited or cultivated tendencies to wrong-doing. We need to understand that imperfection of character is sin. All righteous attributes of character dwell in God as a perfect, harmonious whole, and every one who receives Christ as a personal Saviour is privileged to possess these attributes. {COL 330.2} I believe the two passages above apply to newborn believers who are obeying everything Jesus commanded, which is the result of studying the 28 beliefs with a teacher in the Remnant Church (a teacher like you or Doug Batchelor or Dwight Nelson). Nevertheless, they have not attained unto instant sanctification or instant character perfection. There is no such thing as instant sanctification or instant character perfection. Eternity isn’t long enough to reach sanctified perfection, that is, perfection in the sense there is no more room to grow and become more mature in the fruits of the Spirit. The saints will always be growing, always maturing, always becoming more and more perfect, more and more like Jesus. Peter, Paul, and John also describe these kinds of newborn believers: 1 Peter 2:1 Wherefore laying aside all malice, and all guile, and hypocrisies, and envies, and all evil speakings, 2:2 As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the word, that ye may grow thereby: 2:3 If so be ye have tasted that the Lord [is] gracious. 4:1 Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin; 4:2 That he no longer should live the rest of [his] time in the flesh to the lusts of men, but to the will of God.
Romans 6:3 Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death? 6:4 Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life. 6:5 For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death, we shall be also [in the likeness] of [his] resurrection: 6:6 Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with [him], that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we should not serve sin. 6:7 For he that is dead is freed from sin.
1 John 3:3 And every man that hath this hope in him purifieth himself, even as he is pure. 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law. 3:5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin. 3:6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him. 3:7 Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous. 3:8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil. 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. The people portrayed in the passages above are newborn believers who are abiding in Jesus experiencing grow in grace while daily maturing in the fruits of the Spirit – not one fruit or attribute of God’s character is missing. They are obeying everything Jesus commanded. Nevertheless, they have not attained unto instant sanctification or instant character perfection. As mentioned above, believers do not begin the work of perfecting the righteous traits of character God implanted in them until the instant they experience rebirth. From then on it is their privilege to enjoy unbroken growth in grace, uninterrupted victories over sin, self, and Satan. Listen: The sins that were practiced before conversion, are to be put off, with the old man. With the new man, Christ Jesus, are to be put on “kindness, humbleness of mind, meekness, longsuffering.” (SD 300) We must gain the victory over self, crucify the affections and lusts; and then begins the union of the soul with Christ. (5T 47)
The Christian’s life is not a modification or improvement of the old, but a transformation of nature. There is a death to self and sin, and a new life altogether. This change can be brought about only by the effectual working of the Holy Spirit. (DA 172)
[Jesus] knew that truth, armed with the omnipotence of the Holy Spirit, would conquer in the contest with evil; and that the bloodstained banner would wave triumphantly over His followers. He knew that the life of His trusting disciples would be like His, a series of uninterrupted victories, not seen to be such here, but recognized as such in the great hereafter. {DA 679.2}
In the new birth the heart is brought into harmony with God, as it is brought into accord with His law. When this mighty change has taken place in the sinner, he has passed from death unto life, from sin unto holiness, from transgression and rebellion to obedience and loyalty. The old life of alienation from God has ended; the new life of reconciliation, of faith and love, has begun. Then “the righteousness of the law” will “be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.” Romans 8:4. And the language of the soul will be: “O how love I Thy law! it is my meditation all the day.” Psalm 119:97. (GC 468) Again, I believe the passages above apply to newborn believers who are obeying everything Jesus commanded, which is the result of studying the 28 beliefs with a teacher in the Remnant Church. "When this mighty change has taken place in the sinner, he has passed from death unto life, from sin unto holiness, from transgression and rebellion to obedience and loyalty." Nevertheless, they have not attained unto instant sanctification or instant character perfection.
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Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#108589
02/18/09 06:22 PM
02/18/09 06:22 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
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Joined: Oct 2000
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T: You have an amazing way of not acknowledging when you're in error. You've been saying the universe has not been made secure, but the SOP says it was made secure by the cross. Before jumping to some new question, it would be nice if you would acknowledge points on questions which have already been raised.
M: I believe the universe was made secure at the cross. I also believe it has been secure from the moment Jesus became the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. I also believe it hinges on the 144,000 demonstrating the benefits of Jesus’ blood during the time of trouble. All these things have been living realities in minds of unfallen beings since the day Jesus first proclaimed them.
T: Inspiration supports the first "I believe," but not the other two. At least, DA 764 says clearly that the cross secured the universe, making very clear that before the cross the universe was not secured, but after the cross it was. If the cross already secured it, then it cannot hinge on something yet future. Through faith the unfallen beings have been secure in the truth about God’s character and kingdom from the moment Jesus announced the plan of salvation. I realize you believe they were living in a state of fear and doubt and disbelief until the instant Jesus literally died on the cross, but I totally disagree with you. M: I don’t enjoy his questions and comments, and I answer them briefly just to be nice. His posts are not rewarding to read. If you feel this way about me, please let me know, and you’ll never hear from me again.
T: If I didn't want to converse with you, I simply wouldn't respond to your posts. Why do you not find kland's posts rewarding to read? Since you're responding out of a desire to be nice, it would be more nice, IMO, if you're responses had more to them. You may have seen the post where I explained I am not going to respond to his comments and question unless I feel especially impressed to do so. In that post I also explained why I don’t find his posts rewarding. Thank you for the advice you shared above. M: Thank you for answering my question thoroughly and forthrightly. It sounds to me, though, that although the cross made the universe secure you believe their security would be forfeited if the 144,000 fail to materialize and Jesus does not return. But you also believe failure is not a possibility. Given what you believe about God’s knowledge of the future, how can you be personally so sure the 144,000 will succeed?
T: Given God knows every possible future, and given that in every possible future the 144,000 materialize, it will surely come to pass. The details can change (e.g., this could have happened shortly after the 1888 message) but not that fact of its happening. Oh, that’s right, now I remember you explaining this awhile ago. I don’t remember, though, how you know it to be true. Did you read it in the SOP? That is, where did you read all the different ways the future could play out involve the 144,000 succeeding? M: Of course we both know my view isn’t wrong because it is confirmed through the SOP. Agreeing with you that the Bible doesn’t portray the law as saying anything about life and death isn’t the same thing as saying I don’t believe the law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin.
T: Ok, so your idea is that this isn't in the law itself, or in Scripture, but Ellen White had this idea, and it's true because she had the idea, although it's not in the law itself, nor in Scripture? Not necessarily. Help me out here. Where in the Bible did God clearly explain the following insights: Soon I saw Him approach the exceeding bright light which enshrouded the Father. Said my accompanying angel, He is in close converse with His Father. The anxiety of the angels seemed to be intense while Jesus was communing with His Father. Three times He was shut in by the glorious light about the Father, and the third time He came out from the Father, His person could be seen. His countenance was calm, free from all perplexity and doubt, and shone with benevolence and loveliness, such as words cannot express. {SR 42.1}
He then made known to the angelic host that a way of escape had been made for lost man. He told them that He had been pleading with His Father, and had offered to give His life a ransom, to take the sentence of death upon Himself, that through Him man might find pardon; that through the merits of His blood, and obedience to the law of God, they could have the favor of God and be brought into the beautiful garden and eat of the fruit of the tree of life. {SR 42.2}
Justice demands that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed. God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, met both these requirements. By dying in man's stead, Christ exhausted the penalty and provided a pardon. {AG 139.2}
In the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood, for death must come in consequence of man's sin. The beasts for sacrificial offerings were to prefigure Christ. In the slain victim, man was to see the fulfillment for the time being of God's word, "Thou shalt surely die." {Con 21.3} Is it possible God did not share all of the details expressed above with those whose writings make up the Bible? If so, does it mean they are less inspired, less authoritative? M: In the past (can’t quote where) you’ve suggested something to the effect that God supernaturally prevents sinners from succumbing to the natural cause and effect relationship that exists between sin and death, namely, instant death, and that His intervention allows sinners to die a gradual first death. And, of course, I agree with this insight. However, I also happen to believe denying sinners access to the tree of life is what made these unusual measures necessary. You seem unwilling to acknowledge the fact if God had not barred access to the tree of life that sinners would have been immortal.
T: This would have required continuously eating of the tree of life, not a one time eating. The tree of life is immaterial to this whole question. Life comes from God, not from a tree. The point is that God, if He chose, could indefinitely prolong the existence of beings who have chosen to sin, but this isn't something which God chooses to do.
He gives people the opportunity to develop their character, which is explained in the DA 764 quote. This quote points out the following: “Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin.”
There's absolutely nothing about a tree involved here! Death is "the inevitable result of sin," again, having nothing to do with any tree. I am unable to arrive at this conclusion because of the truthfulness of the following inspired passages: In the midst of the garden stood the tree of life, surpassing in glory all other trees. Its fruit appeared like apples of gold and silver, and had the power to perpetuate life. {PP 46.4}
The tree of life possessed the power to perpetuate life, and as long as they ate of it, they could not die. The lives of the antediluvians were protracted because of the life-giving power of this tree, which was transmitted to them from Adam and Eve (RH Jan. 26, 1897). {7BC 988.9}
After his disobedience he was not suffered to eat of the tree of life and perpetuate a life of sin. In order for man to possess an endless life he must continue to eat of the fruit of the tree of life. Deprived of that tree, his life would gradually wear out. {3SG 64.1}
I was pointed to Adam and Eve in Eden. They partook of the forbidden tree, and then the flaming sword was placed around the tree of life, and they were driven from the Garden, lest they should partake of the tree of life, and be immortal sinners. The tree of life was to perpetuate immortality. I heard an angel ask, Who of the family of Adam have passed that flaming sword, and have partaken of the tree of life? I heard another angel answer, Not one of the family of Adam have passed that flaming sword, and partaken of that tree; therefore there is not an immortal sinner. The soul that sinneth it shall die an everlasting death; a death that will last forever, where there will be no hope of a resurrection; and then the wrath of God will be appeased. {1SG 113.2}
In order to possess an endless existence, man must continue to partake of the tree of life. Deprived of this, his vitality would gradually diminish until life should become extinct. It was Satan's plan that Adam and Eve should by disobedience incur God's displeasure; and then, if they failed to obtain forgiveness, he hoped that they would eat of the tree of life, and thus perpetuate an existence of sin and misery. But after man's fall, holy angels were immediately commissioned to guard the tree of life. Around these angels flashed beams of light having the appearance of a glittering sword. None of the family of Adam were permitted to pass the barrier to partake of the life-giving fruit; hence there is not an immortal sinner. {PP 60.3} Which one of the passages above inspires you to believe regularly eating of the tree of life would *not* have resulted immortal sinners? You may be tempted to disregard these passages and post other quotes which you believe contradict them, but please, show me how the passages above refute the idea sinners could live forever if allowed regular access to the tree of life. Or, do you agree with me that they do indeed clearly say sinners could live forever? Tom, I am afraid you are going to disregard showing me from the passages above how my conclusions are dead wrong. Please, Tom, please use these passages to disprove my view. M: Yes, the gospel, of course, includes Christ and Him crucified. But it includes many other things as well. Just read the rest of Corinthians and you’ll see what I mean. IOW, the gospel embraces every aspect of life. My point is Paul didn’t use the words “gospel” and “crucified” in the same context.
T: The gospel, as well as Christ and Him crucified, encompassed everything in Paul's thinking. This is a useful principle in understanding his writings.
If you look at Gal. 3, the first third of the chapter or so, you will see that Paul is simultaneously speaking of the Gospel and Christ crucified. In fact, to Paul, Christ crucified was the Gospel. By the way, Ellen White had the same thought as Paul, writing something to the effect that Christ hanging on the cross was the Gospel.
Romans 3 is another example where the Gospel and Christ crucified are used in the same context. Romans 4 is another. Romans 10 is another (see especially vss. 9,10 to the end of the chapter). Again, I agree the death of Jesus is an integral part of the gospel, however, the point I am making is that it isn’t clearly spelled out in the Bible, that is, nowhere in the Bible does it plainly say, “The death of Jesus is an integral part of the gospel.” Yes, it is implied, but it is not clearly spelled out. Ellen wrote: The very essence of the gospel is restoration, and the Saviour would have us bid the sick, the hopeless, and the afflicted take hold upon His strength. {DA 824.5} The gospel is the revelation of God's love to men, and means everything that is essential to the happiness and well-being of humanity. {FE 186.2}
No man can rightly present the law of God without the gospel, or the gospel without the law. The law is the gospel embodied, and the gospel is the law unfolded. The law is the root, the gospel is the fragrant blossom and fruit which it bears. {COL 128.2}
They hate the purity which reveals and condemns their sins, and they persecute and destroy those who would urge upon them its just and holy claims. It is in this sense--because the exalted truths it brings occasion hatred and strife--that the gospel is called a sword. {GC 46.3}
We know that the gospel is a perfect and complete system, revealing the immutability of the law of God. {AG 70.4} When the gospel is received in its purity and power, it is a cure for the maladies that originated in sin. The Sun of Righteousness arises, "with healing in His wings." {MH 115.2} The gospel is a wonderful simplifier of life's problems. Its instruction, heeded, would make plain many a perplexity and save us from many an error. {MH 363.1}
When Christ crucified is preached, the power of the gospel is demonstrated by the influence it exerts over the believer. In place of remaining dead in trespasses and sins, he is awakened. {SD 221.5} The gospel is the power and wisdom of God, if it is correctly represented by those who claim to be Christians. Christ crucified for our sins should humble every soul before God in his own estimation. Christ risen from the dead, ascended on high, our living Intercessor in the presence of God, is the science of salvation which we need to learn and teach to children and youth. {FE 262.3} As you can see, the gospel is many things – it is the truth as it is in Jesus. M: Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham.
T: Regarding point 2, that Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham: “And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed. (Gal. 3:8) So this established point 2.
M: Yes, of course, Paul said it. But my point is Moses didn’t say what Paul said about it. I wrote, “Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham.” Please bear in mind I’ve been asking you all along to prove from the Pentateuch that Jesus had to die or that Moses said the sacrificial animals symbolize the death of Jesus. That’s what your list above is designed to prove – not that Paul believed it.
T: You said you disagree with each point. Point 2 was that Paul said the Gospel was preached to Abraham. You were wrong to say you disagreed with this point, since you agree with it. Here are your three points: 1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified. 2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses. 3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified. As you can see, you didn’t quite quote point number two accurately. As I said before, yes, Paul said the gospel was preached unto Abraham, and, no, Moses didn’t say it, that is, Moses didn’t say the gospel was preached unto Abraham. Moses simply wrote, “In thee shall all nations be blessed.” That’s it. He didn’t say anything about the gospel. It was Paul who made the connection, who recorded it. M: And, nowhere did Moses say Jesus would die.
T: Regarding point 3, that this is recorded in Moses, this is also established in the above quote, since Paul was quoting Moses to establish that the Gospel was preached to Abraham.
M: Again, I’m not asking you to prove Paul believed it; instead, I’m asking you to prove Moses plainly taught it.
T: Paul thought he did. So did Jesus Christ. No, it was Paul who said the gospel was preached unto Abraham, not Moses. That is, Paul didn’t quote Moses as saying, “The gospel was preached unto Abraham.” Neither did Jesus say Moses said it. Jesus said, “For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me.” “And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself.” Again, Jesus didn’t quote Moses as saying, “The Son of God will die as symbolized by animal sacrifices.” Which is why He had to “expound” on what Moses wrote. BTW, do you have any idea which passages in the Pentateuch Jesus might have cited as He “expounded” on the road to Emmaus? M: Apparently you agree with me since you have been unwilling, and mostly likely unable, to post passages which clearly explain why Jesus had to die. I've asked this question zillions of times and you have consistently refused to answer it.
T: I've answered it repeatedly. I've pointed you to specific passages. I've quoted specific verses. You're free to disagree, and continue asserting that neither Moses nor Paul explained why Jesus had to die, but it's not just to assert I am "consistently refusing" to answer your question. I've suggested you take a look at Galatians 3 and Romans 4.
M: And I responded to these posts and demonstrated how they do not say what you are asserting. Your saying so doesn’t make it so.
T: You wrote, "I've asked this question zillions of times and you have consistently refused to answer it." If I've responded to your question, and you've responded to my posts with some sort of rebuttal, this proves on the face of it that your assertion here is false. I'm hardly refusing to answer your question if you're having to come up with rebuttals to my answers.
To use your words, "you're saying so doesn't make it so." It's clear I have not been "consistently refusing" to answer your question, so it would be nice if you would refrain from saying things like this which you know to be false. Yes, you have been posting passages but not from Moses. You have quoted Paul and Jesus but you have yet to quote Moses. All along I’ve been begging you to quote Moses but you have refused. Here’s what you say, “If you don't think Paul taught why Christ had to die, you certainly wouldn't believe Moses did. There's not even a point to discussing Moses if we can't agree regarding Paul.” “If you don't believe that Paul, or John, or Jesus Christ, explained why Christ had to die, we have more important things to talk about.” Rather than honoring my request for you to quote from Moses, you are suggesting we drop it. So, how can you say you’ve done exactly what I have asked you to do when in reality you plainly say you’re not going to do it until I agree with you that Paul and Jesus believed Moses clearly explained why Jesus had to die and that the animal sacrifices symbolize His death? Not once have you quoted from Moses. BTW, let’s not forget the real reason why I brought this up – I believe the fact Moses did not give the Jews better reasons for obeying God (as it relates to sacrificing animals) than merely, Because He said so, it proves it is possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for commanding obedience, and that such is not slavish. T: Here's something from Romans 4: 23 The words "it was credited to him" were written not for him alone, 24but also for us, to whom God will credit righteousness—for us who believe in him who raised Jesus our Lord from the dead. 25He was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification.
M: This describes what Jesus did – but not why He had to do it.
T: "He was delivered over to death for our sins and raised to life for our justification" explains why. The "for our sins" and "for our justification" is dealing with why. In the KJV it reads, righteousness “shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead; who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.” I agree it can be taken the way you are suggesting, but it certainly doesn’t say so “clearly”, that is, it doesn’t clearly say Jesus had to die because . . . (you fill in the blank). Nor does it clearly explain what His resurrection accomplishes that His death didn’t. T: 2 Cor. 5:21 tells us that Christ was made to be sin for us that we might be made the righteousness of God.
M: Same comment as above.
T: That "we might be made the righteousness of God" is why. “For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.” This is addressing His life, not His death. T: In Romans 3 Paul wrote: 25God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— 26he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.
Surely you've read these things. I don't understand how you can read Paul and not understand that his Gospel explains why Jesus Christ had to die. I've never heard anyone suggest this. There's certainly no point in discussing Moses if you can't see Christ's death explained in Paul's preaching.
M: Here’s what Paul actually said (as opposed to what you quoted above):
3:24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: 3:25 Whom God hath set forth [to be] a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; 3:26 To declare, [I say], at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.
T: You know Jesus didn't actually speak in King James English. I quoted one translation while you quoted another. It's absurd to quote one English translation over another and say this is "what Jesus actually said." You'd be better off quoting Greek, if you want to say "what Jesus actually said," but even doing that wouldn't be right because Jesus didn't actually speak in Greek, but at least it would be closer to the truth. But to say, when I quote Scripture, that Jesus Christ didn't actually say what I said, but said something else which is simply another English translation isn't a reasonable assertion. Tom, I didn’t say anything about Jesus. I was talking about Paul. Of course the same thing applies to Paul. Here’s what Ellen wrote about this passage: Here the truth is laid out in plain lines. This mercy and goodness is wholly undeserved. The grace of Christ is freely to justify the sinner without merit or claim on his part. Justification is a full, complete pardon of sin. The moment a sinner accepts Christ by faith, that moment he is pardoned. The righteousness of Christ is imputed to him, and he is no more to doubt God's forgiving grace. {RC 78.3}
There is nothing in faith that makes it our saviour. Faith cannot remove our guilt. Christ is the power of God unto salvation to all them that believe. The justification comes through the merits of Jesus Christ. He has paid the price for the sinner's redemption. Yet it is only through faith in His blood that Jesus can justify the believer. {RC 78.4}
Grace is unmerited favor, and the believer is justified without any merit of his own, without any claim to offer to God. He is justified through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, who stands in the courts of heaven as the sinner's substitute and surety. But while he is justified because of the merit of Christ, he is not free to work unrighteousness. Faith works by love and purifies the soul. Faith buds and blossoms and bears a harvest of precious fruit. Where faith is, good works appear. . . Christ is the great depositary of justifying righteousness and sanctifying grace. {1SM 398.1} “He has paid the price for the sinner's redemption. Yet it is only through faith in His blood that Jesus can justify the believer.” “He is justified through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, who stands in the courts of heaven as the sinner's substitute and surety.” Her commentary clearly explains what Paul was trying to convey to the Romans. Jesus earned the right on the cross to pardon sinners and to empower them to live without sinning. Listen: “Justice demands that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed. God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, met both these requirements. By dying in man's stead, Christ exhausted the penalty and provided a pardon. {AG 139.2} “In the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood, for death must come in consequence of man's sin. The beasts for sacrificial offerings were to prefigure Christ. In the slain victim, man was to see the fulfillment for the time being of God's word, "Thou shalt surely die." {Con 21.3}
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