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Re: does God punish? [Re: Bobryan] #108669
02/19/09 10:41 PM
02/19/09 10:41 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Regarding #108530, isn't it clear this is not an issue of the flesh? Moses was able to see God's glory without being burned up. He had sinful flesh. The Israelites couldn't even bear the reflected glory of Moses' face. Why? Because of their flesh? No, because they had the same flesh Moses had.

Quote:
1. Your idea overlooks the fact God could have won the GC without A&E falling, that it wasn't necessary for them to fall.


No, there's no implication that Adam and Eve had to fall. This is an invalid inference. Had Adam and Eve not fallen, Satan would not have been the prince of this world. The issue of the GC would have remained, but the means of fighting the battle would have been completely different.

Quote:
2. Your idea overlooks what God promised in Deut. 28:1-14, that He would protect them from all harm.


I don't follow this. This point would attach as much to your view as mine.

Quote:
3. Your idea overlooks the fact God regularly intervenes and forcibly prevents evil men and angels from harming good and innocent people without infringing upon their rights and freedoms.


No it doesn't. I addressed this. Several time, in fact. I pointed out that a certain amount of freedom is necessary in order for Satan to be able to make his case. The only way God could prevent anyone from being harmed would be to prevent all sin, which He could only do by curtailing free will.

Quote:
I believe the reason God permits evil men and angels to harm good and innocent people is that such treatment serves to grow the saints spiritually. Like other trials, which serve as God's "workmen" to grow people spiritually, the purpose is to foster and nurture righteous traits of character unto God's honor and glory.


Surely God could grow the saints spiritually without Satan's help. This can't be the only reason, or even the principle one.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: does God punish? [Re: Tom] #108688
02/20/09 04:03 AM
02/20/09 04:03 AM
B
Bobryan  Offline
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Joined: Feb 2009
Posts: 793
Georgia, USA
Originally Posted By: Tom
Ty Gibson

The law is not an arbitrary set of rules made up at random by God to prove His authority over us, but rather a practical explanation of what love looks like in real life…Sin is anything contrary to the character of God; more specifically, anything contrary to His love…

Love is God’s law, the principle by which He lives. It is a law because it is not arbitrary, but based on reality as it is, governing life by its righteous principles. Love is the law by which God made and sustains life….

Sin is the opposite, antagonistic principle at war with the law of love. Do not view sin as merely an alternative way of living, which happens to be harmlessly different from God’s way. God’s way is the only way to live, not because He happens to be more powerful and can arbitrarily punish us if we don’t comply, but because life is actually, intrinsically present only in God’s way, which is the way of love. The problem with sin is that it is wrong, actually, essentially, inherently wrong. And it is wrong for good reason, not just because the One in charge doesn’t like it. To be sure, God does not like sin, but He doesn’t like it because of what it does to is victims, not because He is a picky control freak who decided to come up with a list of arbitrary rules to keep us under His thumb. Sin, by its very nature, is anti-life. It is intrinsically destructive. Hence the Bible calls it the “law of sin and death” (Romans 8:2).

Once the nature of sin is understood, it is easy to see why sin is a law of death: sin is selfishness, the antithesis of love. As such, it leads inevitably to the exclusion of, and isolation from, the sustaining love and support of all others….



so far there "is a sense" in which one could easily agree with the statements above - though I think they fall far short of taking in the full scope of the issue of Law.

God "MADE HIS LAW" equal to Himself! This was a strategic move on His part that prevented Him from simply "bending rules" when it pleased Him.

In The Garden of Gethsemane Christ asks that if it be possible - let this cup pass from Me -- never-the-less not My will but THY will be done.

IF ever there was a case for God "having a motive" to bend the law - it was when His own Son asked for some other solution other than the law-upholding solution that would require the separation of Christ from the Father AND it would require the exact amount of torment and suffering debt owed by all sins of all mankind in all of time be placed upon Christ so that He might "nail our Certificate of Debt to the cross" Col 2:14-15.

Quote:

Because God’s love is the law of the universe, by which He created and sustains all things, the principles of that law are designed into our very natures. Within our psycho-emotional makeup, love is encoded as the law of life. When we violate that law, a malfunction signal issues a warning in the form of guilt. That part of our minds we call *conscience* senses discomfort with sin and identifies it as a destructive virus in the computer system, so to speak. Guilt is not arbitrarily imposed by God any more than His law is arbitrary. He is the Architect of conscience, but He is not the source of guilt. He made us with the capacity to feel guilt as a merciful and wise deterrent to sin, desiring, of course, that we would never experience its pain….


At this point the author of the article completely falls off the horse.

1. At the fall -- mankind took upon himself a new sinFUL nature. Depravity.

2. Romans 3 describes that depravity as "there is NO ONE who SEEKS after God - NO not ONE"! The fall of man was into a depraved state that only SUPERNATURAL forces could override.

3. In Gen 3 - God provides a supernatural force -- "I will put emnity between the see of the woman and the seed of the serpent". It is only by the supernatural acts of God that mankind is even aware of his sin and guilt.

John 16 -- the Holy Spirit is sent to "convict the WORLD of sin and righteousness and judgment".

Man's depraved sinful nature would not do it. Man of himself would not even seek after God at all.

Quote:

While God does not desire that anyone ever experience physical pain or the psychological pain of guilt, even more so He does not desire our utter destruction. Pain is a built-in mercy mechanism intended to aid in the preservation of life. Pain is not an indication that God is exercising some kind of power above, beyond, or contrary to His law of love in order to inflict suffering as an arbitrary punishment for sin. Punishment is organic to sin itself….


Here again the author is simply floundering. Probably as a result of having missed the previous point.

God's choices were;

1. an instant death for Lucifer and then for any angel that followed, and then for anyone of his created beings - planets - intelligences that dare to follow - (and the fear based system that would have created)

2. OR to revoke free will - Tweaking the mind of Lucifer and any other being that just so happened to have a stray thought cycle leaning toward rebellion -- tweaked before they would even know that something was amiss.

3. OR to allow sin and suffering to continue while also allow the DEBT of suffering and pain OWED for that continued sin to pile up - to continue. With the benefit of sealing off the problem of sin forever in the context of a free will universe -- but at the price of much sin, much suffering and then much suffering-debt owed and payed in the fires of HELL AND ALSO paid by Christ on the Cross! By one EQUAL to the LAW.

He chose to continue with the free will experiment - and he chose not to go down the system-of-fear instant-death with least pain punishment and suffering solution.

The author simply has not taken the time to consider all the variables.

Quote:

It is commonly thought that the connection between sin and death is imply that if we don’t repent of our sins God will kill us. Often no actual, intrinsic relationship is discerned between sin and death. But even a casual consideration of Scripture on this point persuades us otherwise. Notice just these few examples (quotes Gal. 6:7, 8; Rom. 6:16, 21-23; Rom. 8:6; Rom. 8:13; Prov. 8:36; James 1:15)…


It is incleaer that even one of these texts is speaking to the result of sin being "death apart from God" which is to say - apart from the 2nd death. Indeed if we look at Romans 6 it is very clear that the death spoken of is NOT suffered by the saints which means it can only refer to the 2nd death - the lake of fire - manufactured and orchestrated death with all the Rev 14:10-11 "tormented with fire and brimstone" suffering that it involves.

We see that again in Romans 2 where the wicked get the punishment of death and the righteous get "eternal life" by contrast. yet we know that in this world - "all die".

Clearly then the text speaks to the supernatural -- contrived - completely manufactured event of the 2nd death that STARTS with the supernatural act of Resurrection SO THAT the wicked CAN be in a living state in which to suffer the suffering and pain of the 2nd death.

Quote:

So, when Paul says that holiness results in eternal life, he is not removing God from the equation and making life a mere naturalistic cause and effect matter. He is simply describing *how* God gives us eternal life….


This again is false - because of missing the first point above. No amount of Holiness is going to give the lost person "eternal life". With their sinful depraved nature and their deeds of sin - they are already doomed to the 2nd death. The longer they live in sin - the more sin and suffering "debt" they accumulate. Ten years of sinless living (as if that was possible for them) does not erase the debt of 1 year of sin.

The Law of God would demand that the "wages of sin be paid" -

Quote:

God does not threaten, “If you keep sinning, I will kill you.”


That much is true. Rather The Law says "IF YOU SIN AT ALL - you must die" -- because the wages of sin -- even one sin -- is death.

Quote:

Rather, He warns, “If you continue in sin, you will die,” for “sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.” And so He pleads, “I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked; but that the wicked turn from his way and live: turn ye, turn ye from your evil ways; for why will ye die …? (Ezek. 33:11).


This is true - but only in context of the Gospel that provides BOTH forgiveness of sins committed AND CLEANSING from all unrighteousness so that you no longer HAVE to sin. No longer SLAVES to sin.

Quote:

We’re caught off guard by a question like this from God. We are more inclined to ask Him, “Why do You kill?” But He points to our sin and asks us, “Why do you choose death?”…

(quotes Rom. 5:11; 1 Pet. 3:18; 1 Pet. 2:24, 25; 2 Cor. 5:14, 15)
Please not the recurring point in the preceding verses:
• Through Christ we receive “atonement”; we are made one with God.
• The purpose of the substitutionary death of Christ is to “bring us to God”; not Him to us. God has demonstrated His reconciled position toward us in Christ.
• Through sin we have gone “astray”; but through the sacrifice of Christ we “are not returned” to God.


While much of this is true - it misses the point that God drove man FROM the Garden of Eden - man begged to stay. As Ellen White points out -- Adam and Eve swore that they would never transgress again -- and begged to remain in fellowship with God - and inside the Garden of Paradise.

Man's fallen condition dictated that his direct communication with God no longer be avaiable. But some means was opened up so that through the ministry of Angels, through the saving work of God the Son - a means of communion would be preserved though vastly reduced from the direct contact with God that man had in Eden.

Quote:

• The love of Christ, revealed in His death, causes us to cease living for self and to start living for Him; we are reestablished in the circle of selfless, other-centered love through the atoning death of Christ….


Not even close.

The convicting work of the Holy Spirit - the work of Christ in supernaturally "Drawing ALL unto Me" John 12:32 - ENABLES the depraved soul to choose life. The love of God demonstrated at the cross then convinces the lost sinner that "God is Love" and also that that warning about a real 2nd death punishment for sin is every bit as real as the supernatural unseen torment and suffering endured by Christ at the cross.

It is BOTH justice AND mercy seen together. It shows the REAL fact of the 2nd death AND it shows the REAL fact of God's great love.

Quote:

(discussing the three-party picture of the atonement)
1. The sinner, who has aroused the anger of God.
2. A wrathful God, who needs personal satisfaction that can only be derived from inflicting suffering and imposing death; only then will He even consider letting us off the hook with forgiveness.
3. A third-party victim, who is made to suffer and die as a substitute for the sinner.


Here the author apparently summarizes one flawed alternative to his own solution. We can agree with some of the flaws in the points listed above -- but I can not agree that this is really the only alternative to the mistaken conclusion that the author of this article leaps to embrace.

Quote:

There are a number of serious problems with the three-party picture, foremost of which is that it makes no legal or moral sense for an innocent third-party victim to suffer the penalty for the wrongdoer. If such an arrangement could actually satisfy God, then we would be forced to conclude that His law and His wrath are irrational and arbitrary, meaning there is no actual relationship between law and sin and death. If God’s wrath can be appeased by venting rage on an innocent third party, then it follows that there is no real problem with sin other than the fact that God doesn’t want us doing it: His law is arbitrary. Moreover, since we have failed to meet His arbitrary demands, we had better suffer ourselves or find a whipping boy to suffer in our place: His wrath is arbitrary.


I will refrain from beating on the flawed straw man that was drawn up since I think there is another solution that also not quite the author's solution.

Quote:

Biblical Christianity proclaims, in extreme contrast to the third-party view of substitution, that God has given Himself as our Substitute, to bear our sin and its inherent, divinely-ordained penalty.


Agreed.

Quote:


Hence there are only two parties involved in the atonement: 1. The sinner, who has aroused in God a painful tension between a holy, rational anger against sin and an equally holy, rational mercy toward the sinner. 2. An infinitely just an definitely merciful God, who loves us so selflessly that He has chosen to give Himself to suffer and die as our Substitute….


AND one more party -- the UNFALLEN FREE WILL Intelligent Creation that are ALSO under security of that SAME unbreakable LAW of God that is EQUAL to Himself.

(Much of that point seems to have gone unnoticed by the author for some reason).

Quote:


So what actually happened on that hill far away as the Son of God hung between heaven and earth? Did Christ bear the wrath of God at Calvary? What part did the Father act in the suffering and death of Christ? A number of Scriptures bear a consistent testimony to answer these questions:

(quotes Acts 2:23, 24; Acts 4:24-28) ….


Hmmm -- how nice if Isaiah 53 or 2Cor 5 had been included in the author's solution. Had they been included we might have had something that would stand up to the test of scripture.


Quote:

Did the Father cause the suffering and death of Christ?

Yes and no!

Yes, if we mean He delivered Him over to suffering and death according to His own wise purpose of grace. Yes, if we mean that the Father gave up His Son to experience the tormenting psychological agony of our guilt.


"tormenting psychological agony" is not the kind of scriptural term we expect to find in the Bible.

Quote:

No, if we mean He acted as an arbitrary source of pain and death, as the tormentor and executioner of His Son. No, if we mean that the Father assumed a position of vicious hostility toward His Son. Christ suffered and died at *our* hands, under the burden of *our* sin, by the gracious, self-sacrificing purpose of the Father….


Here again - the author misses the boat almost entirely.

In the Roman Catholic view - it is the "passion of the Christ" his suffering at the hands of Romans that "pays our debt" of sin.

But in the actual Bible that is not the case. Christ could easily have died in the Garden of Gethsemane paying the complete debt of sin and simply dying before the mob ever arrived.

The outward external view of Romans soldiers torturing Christ - is merely to give a tiny glimpse into the much greater - supernatural agony sufferred by Christ who was Himself taking on the EXACT amount of torment and suffering owed for EACH sin committed by EACH sinner in all of time -- accumulated and then supernaturally placed upon Christ.

Notice that the "wages of sin is not torment by Romans". The wages of sin Rev 20 is not "torture by Roman guards" NOR is it crucifixion on a tree. It is "torment and suffering" in the lake of fire and brimstone where "Those who knew their masters will AND yet did deeds worthy of flogging will receive MANY lashes" Luke 12:46-48

in Christ,

Bob

Last edited by Bobryan; 02/20/09 04:08 AM.
Re: does God punish? [Re: Bobryan] #108691
02/20/09 05:22 AM
02/20/09 05:22 AM
teresaq  Offline OP
SDA
Active Member 2024

Very Dedicated Member
Joined: Mar 2008
Posts: 1,984
CA, USA
Originally Posted By: Bobryan

The author simply has not taken the time to consider all the variables.

or perhaps the author of this quote hasnt, would that be a possiblity?


Quote:
The Law of God would demand that the "wages of sin be paid" -

... Rather The Law says "IF YOU SIN AT ALL - you must die" -- because the wages of sin -- even one sin -- is death.


which "law" would that be? i only know of the 10 commandments and i have yet to read that in them.

is there another "law" you know about?


Psa 64:5 ...an evil matter: they commune of laying snares privily; they say, Who shall see them?

Psa 7:14 Behold, he travaileth with iniquity, and hath conceived mischief, and brought forth falsehood. 15 He made a pit, and digged it, and is fallen into the ditch which he made. 16 His mischief (and his violent dealing) shall return upon his own head.

Psa 7:17 I will praise the LORD according to his righteousness: and will sing praise to the name of the LORD most high.
Re: does God punish? [Re: teresaq] #108694
02/20/09 11:31 AM
02/20/09 11:31 AM
B
Bobryan  Offline
SDA
Active Member 2015
Senior Member
Joined: Feb 2009
Posts: 793
Georgia, USA
The one mentioned in Roman 3 that states that the law places all the world under condemnation - that every mouth should be closed -- everyone condemned for there is "no one who seeks after God -- no not one".

The one in Gal 3 that says that there is no salvation at all under the law and that as many as are under the law are under a curse - for all have sinned.

The one in Romans 6 that says that the wages of sin "yes even one sin" is death. (the 2nd death -- since by contrast the gift of God is eternal life).

The one in Luke 12:46-48 where Christ informs us that the "one who knew his masters will and yet did deeds worthy of flogging will receive many stripes" - showing magnitude of payment due for sins is also in the context of the knowledge of the person.

The one in Is 53 telling us that Christ took the stripes of suffering "FOR US to whom the Stroke was DUE".

In Matt 5-7 we are told by Christ that the 10 Commandment scope extends even to thought-sins.

in Christ,

Bob

Last edited by Bobryan; 02/20/09 11:36 AM.
Re: does God punish? [Re: teresaq] #108695
02/20/09 11:43 AM
02/20/09 11:43 AM
B
Bobryan  Offline
SDA
Active Member 2015
Senior Member
Joined: Feb 2009
Posts: 793
Georgia, USA
Quote:
Ty Gibson
Quote:

While God does not desire that anyone ever experience physical pain or the psychological pain of guilt, even more so He does not desire our utter destruction. Pain is a built-in mercy mechanism intended to aid in the preservation of life. Pain is not an indication that God is exercising some kind of power above, beyond, or contrary to His law of love in order to inflict suffering as an arbitrary punishment for sin. Punishment is organic to sin itself….


Quote:
Bob said

Here again the author is simply floundering. Probably as a result of having missed the previous point.

God's choices were;

1. an instant death for Lucifer and then for any angel that followed, and then for anyone of his created beings - planets - intelligences that dare to follow - (and the fear based system that would have created). With the benefit being least pain and suffering for any one sinner and for those sinless beings around them.

2. OR to revoke free will - Tweaking the mind of Lucifer and any other being that just so happened to have a stray thought cycle leaning toward rebellion -- tweaked before they would even know that something was amiss.

3. OR to allow sin and suffering to continue while also allow the DEBT of suffering and pain OWED for that continued sin to pile up - to continue. With the benefit of sealing off the problem of sin forever in the context of a free will universe -- but at the price of much sin, much suffering and then much suffering-debt owed and payed in the fires of HELL AND ALSO paid by Christ on the Cross! By one EQUAL to the LAW.

He chose to continue with the free will experiment - and he chose not to go down the system-of-fear instant-death with least pain punishment and suffering solution.

The author simply has not taken the time to consider all the variables.


Originally Posted By: teresaq

or perhaps the author of this quote hasnt, would that be a possiblity?



How so?

in Christ,

Bob

Re: does God punish? [Re: Bobryan] #108703
02/20/09 02:22 PM
02/20/09 02:22 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Regarding #108688, thanks for taking the time to write such a well thought out post! It looks like we are thinking of things very differently, which is fine, as the care you've taken in laying out your thoughts makes it easy to carry on a dialog. Perhaps we can learn from each other's ideas.

As this is quite a long post, I'll respond it pieces.

Quote:
God "MADE HIS LAW" equal to Himself! This was a strategic move on His part that prevented Him from simply "bending rules" when it pleased Him.


This doesn't make sense to me. I see the law as a transcript of God's character, which is simply a description of the way God is. It exists for our benefit, His creatures. It has no impact on Him. With or without the existence of the law, He would do nothing any differently, as the law is simply a description of God's character, and character is what it is. To summarize God's character in a word, it is agape. Agape acts in a certain way, and that way is described by God's law.

Quote:
In The Garden of Gethsemane Christ asks that if it be possible - let this cup pass from Me -- never-the-less not My will but THY will be done.


This is agape. Agape acts according to the principle of self-sacrificing love. "Not my will but THY will be done" is a description of agape.

Quote:
IF ever there was a case for God "having a motive" to bend the law - it was when His own Son asked for some other solution other than the law-upholding solution that would require the separation of Christ from the Father AND it would require the exact amount of torment and suffering debt owed by all sins of all mankind in all of time be placed upon Christ so that He might "nail our Certificate of Debt to the cross" Col 2:14-15.


The primary problem was not the law, but the salvation of the lost and the vindication of God's throne. Without the law, Christ still would have had to die. The death of Christ exposed or unmasked the enemy, and thus destroyed his kingdom. It also exposed God, so to speak, in that it revealed His love, goodness and character to heights which had never been seen before. Even the onlooking universe was amazed.

If it were simply a matter of law, God could have avoided the law altogether but not bringing it into existence. There's surely something wrong with a law if it requires an innocent person to die a hideous death which would have been absolutely unnecessary had that law not existed.

You've suggested God created the law as a strategic move on His part that prevented Him from simply "bending rules" when it pleased Him. What rules? Aren't the rules you're speaking of that which is specified in the Law itself? If the rules come about as a result of the Law, then simply not creating the Law would have prevented these rules from coming into existence.

On the other hand, if these rules are rules which existed apart from the law, and the reason for the law was to constrain God to keep these rules, this raises questions about God. Why should He need a law to prevent Him from bending rules?

Quote:
At this point the author of the article completely falls off the horse.


On your comments here, I didn't see that they had anything at all to do with what Ty wrote. That is, you seemed to me to be addressing an issue Ty wasn't raising. Of course because of man's sinful nature, he cannot overcome sin without divine help, and of course Ty knows this and believe this to be the case. I don't see what Ty could have written to have given you a different impression.

Quote:
Ty:While God does not desire that anyone ever experience physical pain or the psychological pain of guilt, even more so He does not desire our utter destruction. Pain is a built-in mercy mechanism intended to aid in the preservation of life. Pain is not an indication that God is exercising some kind of power above, beyond, or contrary to His law of love in order to inflict suffering as an arbitrary punishment for sin. Punishment is organic to sin itself….

B:Here again the author is simply floundering. Probably as a result of having missed the previous point.


The previous point is that has a sinful nature and needs divine help. Again, of course Ty is well aware of this. His point here is that punishment is organic to sin itself, which, as far as I can see, has nothing whatever to do with the fact that man has a sinful nature, which, again, is something Ty is well aware of. So I'm not following your train of thought here. Either that or I've misunderstood your point.

Quote:
God's choices were;

1. an instant death for Lucifer and then for any angel that followed, and then for anyone of his created beings - planets - intelligences that dare to follow - (and the fear based system that would have created)


Agree. I'm sure Ty agrees with this too.

Quote:

2. OR to revoke free will - Tweaking the mind of Lucifer and any other being that just so happened to have a stray thought cycle leaning toward rebellion -- tweaked before they would even know that something was amiss.


which is of course unthinkable, given God's character

Quote:

3. OR to allow sin and suffering to continue while also allow the DEBT of suffering and pain OWED for that continued sin to pile up - to continue.


Well this is the point of contention. Ty is arguing against this perspective.

Quote:
With the benefit of sealing off the problem of sin forever in the context of a free will universe -- but at the price of much sin, much suffering and then much suffering-debt owed and payed in the fires of HELL AND ALSO paid by Christ on the Cross! By one EQUAL to the LAW.

He chose to continue with the free will experiment - and he chose not to go down the system-of-fear instant-death with least pain punishment and suffering solution.

The author simply has not taken the time to consider all the variables.


No, it's not the case that the author has not taken the time to consider the variables you are suggesting, but that he is arguing against the perspective you are suggesting. This is his point in bringing out that punishment for sin is not something arbitrarily imposed by God, but is organic to the sin itself.

Quote:
Ty:It is commonly thought that the connection between sin and death is imply that if we don’t repent of our sins God will kill us. Often no actual, intrinsic relationship is discerned between sin and death. But even a casual consideration of Scripture on this point persuades us otherwise. Notice just these few examples (quotes Gal. 6:7, 8; Rom. 6:16, 21-23; Rom. 8:6; Rom. 8:13; Prov. 8:36; James 1:15)…

B:It is incleaer that even one of these texts is speaking to the result of sin being "death apart from God" which is to say - apart from the 2nd death. Indeed if we look at Romans 6 it is very clear that the death spoken of is NOT suffered by the saints which means it can only refer to the 2nd death - the lake of fire - manufactured and orchestrated death with all the Rev 14:10-11 "tormented with fire and brimstone" suffering that it involves.


Of course these texts are dealing with the second death. Ty is arguing that the second death is not something arbitrarily imposed by God, but the result of sin. That Ty is speaking of the second death is clear by the context. He's talking about the judgment. Notice His reference that "if we don’t repent of our sins God will kill us." This is referring to the judgment, where this is indeed what many think. When a person dies in his sleep, nobody conceives this as God's killing him. On the other hand, many believe that God will kill the wicked in the judgment with literal fire.

Quote:
We see that again in Romans 2 where the wicked get the punishment of death and the righteous get "eternal life" by contrast. yet we know that in this world - "all die".

Clearly then the text speaks to the supernatural -- contrived - completely manufactured event of the 2nd death that STARTS with the supernatural act of Resurrection SO THAT the wicked CAN be in a living state in which to suffer the suffering and pain of the 2nd death.


The author is speaking of the second death all along, and is making the argument that the death is not manufactured, but is the consequence of sin. The texts he cited were all for the purpose of making this point; that is, that the second death is the consequence of sin. For example, he cites James 1:15, which says that sin, when it is finished, brings forth death. As Waggoner put it, sin has death wrapped up in it, or, as EGW put it, death is the inevitable result of sin.

To be clear, the whole question involves whether or not this death is arbitrary, or manufactured, to use your term, or if it is organic, to use Ty's.

(More later)


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: does God punish? [Re: Tom] #108718
02/20/09 05:21 PM
02/20/09 05:21 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
This again is false - because of missing the first point above. No amount of Holiness is going to give the lost person "eternal life".


He's not saying that it does.

Quote:
With their sinful depraved nature and their deeds of sin - they are already doomed to the 2nd death. The longer they live in sin - the more sin and suffering "debt" they accumulate. Ten years of sinless living (as if that was possible for them) does not erase the debt of 1 year of sin.


This is looking at the issue as an economic-lie issue rather than one of character. It is a person's character which determines his destiny.

Quote:
The Law of God would demand that the "wages of sin be paid" -


Where does the law demand death?

Quote:
Ty:God does not threaten, “If you keep sinning, I will kill you.”

Bob:That much is true. Rather The Law says "IF YOU SIN AT ALL - you must die" -- because the wages of sin -- even one sin -- is death.


This seems like the same thing. Given that God made the law, if God says, "If you break this law, you must die," and this death is manufactured by God, then God is threatening "If you keep sinning, I will kill you." That's exactly what you're doing.

When Scripture says the wages of sin is death, that means that sin pays its wages, which is death. In other words, the result of sin is death, or, as James puts it, when sin is finished, it brings forth death.

The whole issue that Ty is addressing is whether the death which comes as a result of sin is manufactured, or organic. You can't rebut Ty's arguments by simply asserting that it's manufactured.

Quote:
Ty:Rather, He warns, “If you continue in sin, you will die,” for “sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.” And so He pleads, “I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked; but that the wicked turn from his way and live: turn ye, turn ye from your evil ways; for why will ye die …? (Ezek. 33:11).

B:This is true - but only in context of the Gospel that provides BOTH forgiveness of sins committed AND CLEANSING from all unrighteousness so that you no longer HAVE to sin. No longer SLAVES to sin.


As opposed to what other context?

Quote:
Ty:We’re caught off guard by a question like this from God. We are more inclined to ask Him, “Why do You kill?” But He points to our sin and asks us, “Why do you choose death?”…

(quotes Rom. 5:11; 1 Pet. 3:18; 1 Pet. 2:24, 25; 2 Cor. 5:14, 15)
Please not the recurring point in the preceding verses:
• Through Christ we receive “atonement”; we are made one with God.
• The purpose of the substitutionary death of Christ is to “bring us to God”; not Him to us. God has demonstrated His reconciled position toward us in Christ.
• Through sin we have gone “astray”; but through the sacrifice of Christ we “are not returned” to God.

B:While much of this is true - it misses the point that God drove man FROM the Garden of Eden - man begged to stay. As Ellen White points out -- Adam and Eve swore that they would never transgress again -- and begged to remain in fellowship with God - and inside the Garden of Paradise.

Man's fallen condition dictated that his direct communication with God no longer be available. But some means was opened up so that through the ministry of Angels, through the saving work of God the Son - a means of communion would be preserved though vastly reduced from the direct contact with God that man had in Eden.


What's the connection between what you're saying and what Ty said? You keep saying that Ty is missing things, but when you point out what he's missing, I don't see any connection between what he said and what you're saying he's missing. For example here, why are you talking about A&E leaving Eden?

Quote:
Ty: The love of Christ, revealed in His death, causes us to cease living for self and to start living for Him; we are reestablished in the circle of selfless, other-centered love through the atoning death of Christ….

B:Not even close.


I think this is right on! In 2 Cor. 5:14, 15 we read:

Quote:
14For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead:

15And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.


which looks to be exactly what Ty stated. Here's another that comes to mind:

Quote:
I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me. (Gal. 2:20)


(More later)


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: does God punish? [Re: Tom] #108722
02/20/09 06:23 PM
02/20/09 06:23 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
(discussing the three-party picture of the atonement)
1. The sinner, who has aroused the anger of God.
2. A wrathful God, who needs personal satisfaction that can only be derived from inflicting suffering and imposing death; only then will He even consider letting us off the hook with forgiveness.
3. A third-party victim, who is made to suffer and die as a substitute for the sinner.

B:AND one more party -- the UNFALLEN FREE WILL Intelligent Creation that are ALSO under security of that SAME unbreakable LAW of God that is EQUAL to Himself.

(Much of that point seems to have gone unnoticed by the author for some reason).


I think the "some reason" may be that what's being unnoticed is not on the part of the author, but the reader. When Ty says the third party is made to suffer, he's not saying against His will. This is a conclusion you jumped to. Ty didn't say anything to suggest this.

The "made to suffer" is not in the sense of "made to suffer against His will" but in the sense of something which needed to be done, which is the same thing you're saying.

Ty's argument is that the correct paradigm is a two-party system, not a three party one. There is the sinner, and God. God provides the atonement that reconciles the sinner to Himself.

Quote:
Ty:So what actually happened on that hill far away as the Son of God hung between heaven and earth? Did Christ bear the wrath of God at Calvary? What part did the Father act in the suffering and death of Christ? A number of Scriptures bear a consistent testimony to answer these questions:

(quotes Acts 2:23, 24; Acts 4:24-28) ….

B:Hmmm -- how nice if Isaiah 53 or 2Cor 5 had been included in the author's solution. Had they been included we might have had something that would stand up to the test of scripture.


What's wrong with the Scriptures that were cited? Don't they speak to the subject?

Quote:
"tormenting psychological agony" is not the kind of scriptural term we expect to find in the Bible.


Why not? The only reason I can think of is because English is a differently language than Hebrew or Greek. If one reads the accounts of the Psalms, or EGW's descriptions in "Calvary" of "The Desire of Ages," "tormenting psychological agony" seems very accurate.

Quote:
No, if we mean He acted as an arbitrary source of pain and death, as the tormentor and executioner of His Son. No, if we mean that the Father assumed a position of vicious hostility toward His Son. Christ suffered and died at *our* hands, under the burden of *our* sin, by the gracious, self-sacrificing purpose of the Father….


Here again - the author misses the boat almost entirely.

In the Roman Catholic view - it is the "passion of the Christ" his suffering at the hands of Romans that "pays our debt" of sin.

But in the actual Bible that is not the case. Christ could easily have died in the Garden of Gethsemane paying the complete debt of sin and simply dying before the mob ever arrived.

The outward external view of Romans soldiers torturing Christ - is merely to give a tiny glimpse into the much greater - supernatural agony sufferred by Christ who was Himself taking on the EXACT amount of torment and suffering owed for EACH sin committed by EACH sinner in all of time -- accumulated and then supernaturally placed upon Christ.

Notice that the "wages of sin is not torment by Romans". The wages of sin Rev 20 is not "torture by Roman guards" NOR is it crucifixion on a tree. It is "torment and suffering" in the lake of fire and brimstone where "Those who knew their masters will AND yet did deeds worthy of flogging will receive MANY lashes" Luke 12:46-48


How is what Ty said (i.e. his description of the position against which he was arguing) any different than what you said? He didn't say anything about "torment by Romans." He said, "o, if we mean He acted as an arbitrary source of pain and death, as the tormentor and executioner of His Son." This is speaking of God, which is the same thing you're saying it seems to me.

You speak of "supernatural agony" and that Christ suffered the exact amount of "torment and suffering" that the wicked will suffer at the end of time. How did Christ suffer this, if not by God's hand?

Also when you say the exact amount of each sinner committed for all time, you have the idea that God looked into the future, saw how much collective sin there was, and measured it, and allocated exactly that amount of "torment and suffering" to Christ?

You believe the wicked's "suffer and torment" is manufactured by God, so wouldn't Christ's "suffer and torment" have had to have been manufactured by God as well?

Also, how do you see this as possible. We know the wicked will suffer for many hours or many days. Let's say 1/2 day on the average. How many wicked are there in the judgment? Who knows, but let's guess 10 billion. That comes to 5 billion days of torment and suffering for Christ, which is somewhat over 10 million years of manufactured torment and suffering due to literal fire. It's hard to see how Christ suffered this.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: does God punish? [Re: Tom] #108729
02/20/09 09:09 PM
02/20/09 09:09 PM
Mountain Man  Offline
SDA
Charter Member
Active Member 2019

20000+ Member
Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
Originally Posted By: Tom
Regarding 108651, you've asked this many times, and I've answered it many times. The brief answer is that I'm considering "justice" differently than you are. Here's something to look at:

http://www.sharktacos.com/God/cross1.html

Take a special look at the part which speak of "justice."

Here's a quote from the link you posted above:

Quote:
The justice that Jesus ushers in, the righteousness he brings, have to do with God pouring his love out on us, with God showing his compassion for the lost and the poor. With God meeting us in our need and liberating us from sin and oppression. With "setting things right" - that is what biblical justice is about. There is no dichotomy between a "God of justice" in the Old Testament and a "God of mercy" in the New. There is no split in God's character. God has always been a compassionate God, a God of love. Jesus reveals who God is and who God has always been. Justice is about mercy. Justice comes through mercy and always has.

The author above seems to be of the opinion that "justice" is mercy, justification, forgiveness, unmerited favor. However, Ellen makes the following observations:

Quote:
Through Jesus, God's mercy was manifested to men; but mercy does not set aside justice. The law reveals the attributes of God's character, and not a jot or tittle of it could be changed to meet man in his fallen condition. God did not change His law, but He sacrificed Himself, in Christ, for man's redemption. "God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto Himself." 2 Cor. 5:19. {DA 762.1}

By His life and His death, Christ proved that God's justice did not destroy His mercy, but that sin could be forgiven, and that the law is righteous, and can be perfectly obeyed. Satan's charges were refuted. God had given man unmistakable evidence of His love. {DA 762.4}

When upon the cross He cried out, "It is finished," He addressed the Father. The compact had been fully carried out. Now He declares: Father, it is finished. I have done Thy will, O My God. I have completed the work of redemption. If Thy justice is satisfied, "I will that they also, whom Thou hast given Me, be with Me where I am." John 19:30; 17:24. The voice of God is heard proclaiming that justice is satisfied. {DA 834}

In the passage above Ellen clearly contrasts mercy and justice. "Mercy does not set aside justice . . . [and] justice did not destroy His mercy". Jesus' death on the cross satisfied justice. She does not view them as synonymous aspects of salvation. Elsewhere she wrote, "The penalty for the least transgression of that law is death, and but for Christ, the sinner's Advocate, it would be summarily visited on every offender. Justice and mercy are blended." {TDG 246.1} "Were there no justice, no penalty, there would be no stability to the government of God. It is the mingling of judgment and mercy that makes salvation complete." {Mar 326.2}

She also severely contrasts mercy and justice in the context of judgment in the following passages:

Quote:
The power and authority of the divine government will be employed to put down rebellion; yet all the manifestations of retributive justice will be perfectly consistent with the character of God as a merciful, long-suffering, benevolent being. {GC 541.2}

The severity of the retribution awaiting the transgressor may be judged by the Lord's reluctance to execute justice. The nation with which He bears long, and which He will not smite until it has filled up the measure of its iniquity in God's account, will finally drink the cup of wrath unmixed with mercy. {GC 627.2}

It is the glory of God to be merciful, full of forbearance, kindness, goodness, and truth. But the justice shown in punishing the sinner is as verily the glory of the Lord as is the manifestation of His mercy. {LDE 240.1}

Grace and mercy will then descend from the throne, and justice will take their place. He for whom His people have looked will assume His right--the office of Supreme Judge. {LDE 240.3}

In all the Bible, God is presented not only as a Being of mercy and benevolence, but as a God of strict and impartial justice. {LDE 240.4}

The long-suffering of God is wonderful. Long does justice wait while mercy pleads with the sinner. But "righteousness and judgment are the establishment of His throne." Ps. 97:2, margin. "The Lord is slow to anger;" but He is "great in power, and will not at all acquit the wicked: the Lord hath His way in the whirlwind and in the storm, and the clouds are the dust of His feet." Nahum 1:3. {COL 177.4}

The following insight is curious:

Quote:
Mercy invites us to enter through the gates into the city of God, and justice is sacrificed to accord to every obedient soul full privileges as a member of the royal family, a child of the heavenly King. {AG 70.4}

The following counsel is good to end on (again, mercy and justice are contrasted):

In conversation with others dwell upon the mercy, goodness, and love of God instead of upon His strict judgment and justice. {4T 259}

Re: does God punish? [Re: Mountain Man] #108731
02/20/09 10:07 PM
02/20/09 10:07 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
The author was discussing justice in Scripture, not in Ellen White, so it makes no sense to quote Ellen White in reference to what the author was writing.

Here's something I've quoted a number of times:

Quote:
Every one who lays down his arms and surrenders his opposing will to God has the promise of pardon. This pardon God can grant, and not dishonor his law. Yea, more, it is through this pardon that the mercy and love of God’s law and government are revealed, -- a love that only commanded the right way, not to be arbitrary and domineering, but that men might be happy, -- a love what when men repent of the wrong, and turn back their hearts toward the broken law, is ever willing to forgive the past and give power for future obedience. It is thus that God can be just, and still the justifier of those who believe on Jesus. (God is Love)


We've discussed at length the question of what "justice demands" is. I'm suggesting that it means what Fifield is suggesting. You're suggesting a different meaning, which doesn't work when we consider Lucifer's case. That is, Lucifer broke the law, yet God was willing to pardon him, without a debt having to be paid. Of course, we're going over old ground here.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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