[3) U.S. copyright law--and I suppose this was the biggest deal of these three, as the NIV committee definitely wanted some revenue from their product--apparently requires that a work be at least a certain percent original in order to be eligible for a copyright. The NIV happens to be one of the most strictly-copyrighted modern translations. (I wish I could remember where I came across this detail.)

In the next few posts, I will present what I feel to be the single most important problem with the NIV. It has already caused a change in the theology of many, and its influence has touched our own Adventist church as well.

This issue, in fact, is subtle, and appealing to us as sinners looking for an easy shortcut to relief from our burdens of guilt. In Paul's words, "I had not known sin, but by the law" (Romans 7:7). Therefore, the law, as it has always been, is the special object of Satan's attacks.

It is this law which has been greatly undermined in the NIV. Specifically, three major errors seem to surface in the NIV translation:

1) The law is not so important nor enduring;
2) The law can be changed from time to time; and
3) At the cross, it was completely abolished.

The NIV would have us believe that we are saved by grace, and that it is impossible for mankind, in our sinful state, to keep the law. According to the NIV, Christ's perfect life is our substitute, and we are not called to such perfection. Rather, we are under His grace, and no longer obligated to follow the law.

I will separate this into more than one post. The first one will give a more general sense of how the NIV translators treat the law in various places. It is important to see this, as it will demonstrate the lengths to which they would go to obscure the more critical texts which I will present in the second post. I may still post additional material on this same topic later as I have opportunity, for these next two posts will not exhaust this topic by any means.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.

Would you by this have us believe we are not saved by grace?

<table cellpadding="4" cellspacing="0" border="1" align="center" valign="top">
<tr><td bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">Thou shalt not wrest the judgment of thy poor in his cause. (Exodus 23:6, KJV)</td><td bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">“Do not deny justice to your poor people in their lawsuits. (Exodus 23:6, NIV)</td></tr>
<tr><td colspan="2" bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">What? It's ok to file lawsuits if you are poor? Notice also the switch from "judgment" to "justice."</td></tr>
<tr><td bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">In the tabernacle of the congregation without the vail, which is before the testimony, Aaron and his sons shall order it from evening to morning before the LORD: it shall be a statute for ever unto their generations on the behalf of the children of Israel. (Exodus 27:21, KJV)</td><td bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">In the Tent of Meeting, outside the curtain that is in front of the Testimony, Aaron and his sons are to keep the lamps burning before the Lord from evening till morning. This is to be a lasting ordinance among the Israelites for the generations to come. (Exodus 27:21, NIV)</td></tr>
<tr><td colspan="2" bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">Here the term "statute" becomes "ordinance." Additionally, "for ever" is downgraded to "lasting." There is a reason for this, for according to the NIV, even the law of 10 Commandments is considered abolished at the cross, which we will see later, so how could such a trivial "ordinance" be "for ever" (even in a spiritual sense)?</td></tr>
<tr><td bgcolor="#FFFFFF" valign="top">For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law. (Hebrews 7:12, KJV)</td><td bgcolor="#FFFFFF" valign="top">For when there is a change of the priesthood, there must also be a change of the law. (Hebrews 7:12, NIV)</td></tr>
<tr><td colspan="2" bgcolor="#FFFFFF" valign="top">The NIV changes the meaning here so that it can better fit the Roman Catholic priestly order. The subtle change in this text now allows for a change of law every time there is a change in the priesthood. The original text referred to one and only one change in priesthood, that of Christ.</td></tr>
<tr><td bgcolor="#FFFFFF" valign="top">Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless life. (Hebrews 7:16, KJV)</td><td bgcolor="#FFFFFF" valign="top">one who has become a priest not on the basis of a regulation as to his ancestry but on the basis of the power of an indestructible life. (Hebrews 7:16, NIV)</td></tr>
<tr><td colspan="2" bgcolor="#FFFFFF" valign="top">The changes here in the NIV make the original meaning obscure. The two verses seem hardly similar. Indeed, less than a third of the words are the same as the KJV, even though the NIV added fifty percent more words.</td></tr>
<tr><td bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">For there is verily a disannulling of the commandment going before for the weakness and unprofitableness thereof. (Hebrews 7:18, KJV)</td><td bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">The former regulation is set aside because it was weak and useless (Hebrews 7:18, NIV)</td></tr>
<tr><td colspan="2" bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">Was the law useless? Pay special attention to the NIV use of "regulation" in place of "commandment" here. In other words, in the NIV, "regulation" is a rather important word.</td></tr>
<tr><td bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">And the law is not of faith: but, The man that doeth them shall live in them. (Galatians 3:12, KJV)</td><td bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">The law is not based on faith; on the contrary, “The man who does these things will live by them.” [fn5] Footnote: Lev. 18:5 (Galatians 3:12, NIV)</td></tr>
<tr><td colspan="2" bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">I understand the KJV rendition differently from the NIV rendering here. </td></tr>
<tr><td bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">And by him all that believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the law of Moses. (Acts 13:39, KJV)</td><td bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">Through him everyone who believes is justified from everything you could not be justified from by the law of Moses. (Acts 13:39, NIV)</td></tr>
<tr><td colspan="2" bgcolor="#DDDDFF" valign="top">The NIV here makes it appear that the law of Moses could justify some things, whereas the KJV rendition would have us believe that the law justifies nothing. The difference is a comma!</td></tr>

</table>
Blessings,
<p>
Green Cochoa.

No, of course not. We are saved by grace, but not by grace only. The popular saying "saved by grace alone" is simply false, and unbiblical.

The NIV, however, implies that it is only by grace that we are saved, and that our escape from sin cannot take place in this world.

For me, if God has grace toward me, He will help me break the bonds of sin, and not leave me to be a captive. Nor should He wait to do this for me only in the future life, but here and now.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.

GC:For me, if God has grace toward me, He will help me break the bonds of sin, and not leave me to be a captive.

How, then, are we to be saved? "As Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness," so the Son of man has been lifted up, and everyone who has been deceived and bitten by the serpent may look and live. "Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world." John 1:29. The light shining from the cross reveals the love of God. His love is drawing us to Himself. If we do not resist this drawing, we shall be led to the foot of the cross in repentance for the sins that have crucified the Saviour. Then the Spirit of God through faith produces a new life in the soul. The thoughts and desires are brought into obedience to the will of Christ. The heart, the mind, are created anew in the image of Him who works in us to subdue all things to Himself. Then the law of God is written in the mind and heart, and we can say with Christ, "I delight to do Thy will, O my God." Ps. 40:8. (DA 175)

God has made provision that we may become like unto Him, and He will accomplish this for all who do not interpose a perverse will and thus frustrate His grace. (MB 76)

Whenever the NIV reflects the truth in a way easier to understand than the KJV would it be okay to quote it instead?

1) Is the "easier to understand" truth still the untarnished, unaltered truth?
2) Would you be giving people a false sense of security in using the NIV, as if it were a safe Bible version to use at anytime?
3) Does your target audience accept it, or would they stumble at it?
4) Will the alternate wording confuse those who are trying to memorize it from a different version?