How about Mark 2:27 "The Sabbath was made for man, not man for the Sabbath."

People say the Sabbath was given to the Jews in the wilderness. But that text says the Sabbath was created for mankind.

How about:
Therefore a Sabbath Rest Remains for the people of God. (Hebs. 4:9)

The Sabbath continues. The verb "remains" is "(apoleipetai) which literally means "has been left."
The Greek word translated "rest" in every other passage throughout Hebrews 3 and 4 is "katapausis." The word for "rest" in Hebrews 4:9 is (sabbatismos). The term (sabbatismos) is seen in the writings of Plutarch, Justin, Epiphanius, and others, and each time the term denotes the observance of the Sabbath. Therefore the text is saying, that Sabbath obsevance remains for the people of God.

Does the law still valid?

Christ is the end of the law

On the cross he ended the law of Moses.

A new law was given to Christianity, the law of love.

Why does we say, the Ten Commandments still continue and didn't end at the cross?

Torah consist of 613 mitzvoh, all has been nailed to the cross, is there any text saying that the Ten Commandments is an exception? Does the Jews realize that there are two laws in the Old Testament, same as SDA's view of the law?

Does the law still valid?

Christ is the end of the law

On the cross he ended the law of Moses. (all has been nailed to the cross,)

A new law was given to Christianity, the law of love.

Why does we say, the Ten Commandments still continue and didn't end at the cross?

Torah consist of 613 mitzvoh, all has been nailed to the cross, is there any text saying that the Ten Commandments is an exception? Does the Jews realize that there are two laws in the Old Testament, same as SDA's view of the law?

In His love

This argument is completely absurd, James. If the law had been abolished, the Sabbath certainly would have been abolished with it.

But Jesus didn't know anything about abolishing the law, for He said, "Think not that I have come to abolish the law and the prophets; I have come not to abolish them but to fulfil them." According to the interpretation you are presenting, Christ would have said, "I have not come to abolish them, but to abolish them." Besides, if "fulfill" means to abolish, when Christ said, "For thus it is fitting for us to fulfil all righteousness," this means He abolished righteousness, since He fulfilled it. What could be more absurd?

Paul also didn't know that the commandments had been abolished at the cross, for he quoted several of them (Rom. 13:9, Gal. 5:14, Rom. 7:7, Eph. 6:2).

And the news that the law had been abolished hadn't yet reached James: "If you really fulfil the royal law, according to the scripture, 'You shall love your neighbor as yourself,' you do well. But if you show partiality, you commit sin, and are convicted by the law as transgressors. For whoever keeps the whole law but fails in one point has become guilty of all of it. For he who said, 'Do not commit adultery,' said also, 'Do not kill.' If you do not commit adultery but do kill, you have become a transgressor of the law. So speak and so act as those who are to be judged under the law of liberty" (James 2:8-12).

And alas, John also didn't know anything about the law having been abolished: "For sin is the transgression of the law" (1 John 3:4).

And by the way, the word "end" means also "objective", "goal."

Romans 3:31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.

Romans 6:15 What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid.

Romans 7:7 I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.

So, the law defines sin.
The wages of sin is death, thus no one is saved by keeping the law because all have sinned and come short of the glory of God.
Christ is the only source of salvation.
But what now? Now that we have grace?
Do we do away with the law and engage in sin?
No -- emphatically not.


The law is not an end in itself, it can't bring salvation.
The law shows people their need of salvation by grace, through faith. And the ceremonies shadowed forth Christ as fulfilling the righteousness, and bearing the curse of the broken law.

The law is not destroyed, nor the intention of the Lawgiver disappointed. The cross demonstrate to every member of the human family that the law of God is immutable, and that it can NOT be put aside or nullified to save any transgressor. If God could have changed one iota of His law, Jesus need not have come to our world to suffer and die; but He who was equal with the Father came and suffered the wages of sin, even the death of the cross, to give man another probation.

Christ did not come to release us from obedience to His law, and now we are free to sin. And what is sin? The definition given in God's word is, "Sin is the transgression of the law;" and the apostle Paul declares, "Where no law is, there is no transgression." The law is the great standard that will measure every man's character.


No, the law was not nailed to the cross --
Christ, who bore our sins, was nailed to the cross.

Read Colossians in context:

"When you were dead in your sins and in the uncircumcision of your sinful nature" (vs 13)

Without Christ we were dead -- with no hope, enslaved in sin, with no way out.

But God made you alive with Christ."

How does He do that? How does He give us life and deliver us from death?
Paul's next words tell us!
"He forgave us all our sins"

What was that again? How did He deliver us from death and bring us to life? By getting rid of the law that condemned us? NO! NO! He forgave us our sins, and how was this possible -- this forgiveness?

"He forgave us all our sins; having canceled the written record with it's legal demands which stood against us."

"Cheirographon" was used to show a "certificate of indebtedness". So we could read the verse to say: he canceled the written record of our debts.
What regulations or legal decree is held against sinners? The Bible tells us the wages of sin is death. That is the legal decree— you sin— you will die! That is the wage for sin.

How was it possible for God to forgive us our sins, canceling the record with it's legal decree against us? The verse continues, "He took it away by nailing it to the cross."

So what was nailed to the cross?
What was it that was against us, what was it that opposed us, what was it that stood in the way of life for us?

We must ask ourselves, did God bring forgiveness to mankind by destroying that which points out sin, or by taking upon Himself our sins and paying the penalty in our behalf? The Bible makes this clear enough.

In 1 Cor. 15:3 "Christ died for OUR SINS according to the scriptures."

Peter adds; "Christ in his own self bore our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness, by whose stripes we were healed." (1 Peter 2:24)




No, the law of love wasn't new.
God's law IS love -- it always was and always will be.

Deut. 6:5 And thou shalt love the LORD thy God with all thine heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy might.
6:6 And these words, which I command thee this day, shall be in thine heart:

Deut. 11:13 Hearken diligently unto my commandments which I command you this day, to love the LORD your God, and to serve him with all your heart and with all your soul,

Lev. 19:18 Thou shalt not avenge, nor bear any grudge against the children of thy people, but thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself: I [am] the LORD.






Scripture says of Christ:
he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease,
The blood shed as the sacrifices were offered pointed to the sacrifice of the Lamb of God. All the typical offerings were fulfilled in Him.

Surely you don't want people free now to:
lie, steal, kill, be dishonest, coveteous, with no regard for faithfulness to God, one's marriage partner, or associates, would you?

To say it's "just love" now, puts one in the realm of "moral ethics" or -- whatever seems like "loving" thing to do at the moment, kind of thing.

But God's law of love has guidelines -- his commandments.



In Hebrews we see that the sacrificial/priestly rituals are "fadding away"

but one thing REMAINS

Therefore a Sabbath Rest Remains for the people of God. (Hebs. 4:9)

The Sabbath continues. The verb "remains" is "(apoleipetai) which literally means "has been left."
The Greek word translated "rest" in every other passage throughout Hebrews 3 and 4 is "katapausis." The word for "rest" in Hebrews 4:9 is (sabbatismos). The term (sabbatismos) is seen in the writings of Plutarch, Justin, Epiphanius, and others, and each time the term denotes the observance of the Sabbath. Therefore the text is saying, that Sabbath obsevance remains for the people of God.

A "love code" without any definitions, isn't a code at all.
Love without limits is simply another lie of Satan. It presupposes that a person within him/herself is godlike and can render godly love without any guidelines from God.

The humanistic thinkers have taken over the concept of love from Christianity, but they only took it by word because they want to decide for themselves what love commands, what love is. They want freedom from God's law not freedom in God's law and therefore produce a love apart from law not a love according to God's law.