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Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith?
[Re: Rosangela]
#128760
11/10/10 03:56 PM
11/10/10 03:56 PM
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OP
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R: However, unlike us, Christ was born with a mind different from ours. T: We are all born with different minds.
R:I think you understood what I mean. While our minds are inclined to disobedience, His was inclined to obedience. Nobody has suggested Christ has a mind like ours. He was made in the likeness of sinful flesh. Don’t go too far. He was made in the likeness of sinful flesh; not in the likeness of sinful mind. Do not drag His mind into it. His flesh was our flesh; but the mind was "the mind of Christ Jesus." (A.T.Jones) If Christ had a mind like ours, we wouldn't need the "mind of Christ." R:Natural and hereditary traits of character will be transformed. The indwelling of His spirit will enable them to reveal Christ's likeness. {5MR 132.3}
T: This is dealing with our behavior, it seems to me.
R:We inherit tendencies of character, which are tendencies of behavior. But these tendencies are changed:
“A genuine conversion changes hereditary and cultivated tendencies to wrong.” {Mar 237.2}
“The change which must come to the natural, inherited, and cultivated tendencies of the human heart, is that change of which Jesus spoke when he said to Nicodemus, ‘Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.’” {PH080 43.1}
The behavior changes because the tendencies are changed. You're saying the DNA changes? That seems to be what you're saying. I don't know how else to interpret what you're writing. If it's not the DNA, it would have to be behavior related, wouldn't it? What else is there? From my experience, what I see is that when a sin was totally overcome, its memory can be dismissed without a temptation taking place. For instance, if someone completely overcame the smoking habit, memories won’t be a problem. By "not a problem," you mean, "not a temptation"? It's sounding to me like you're believing in holy flesh, or, perhaps better stated, your belief is that "sinful flesh" doesn't involve sinful things, but only neutral things, like getting tired. So the only thing that happens when one is translated, regarding the flesh, is that one no longer gets tired. The following statement looks to indicate that Christians are tempted from within: Those who would be victors should contemplate the cost of salvation, that they may be subdued by the love of Christ, that their strong human passions may be conquered, and their will brought into captivity to their Redeemer. The Christian is to realize that he is not his own, but that he has been bought with a price. His strongest temptations will come from within; for he must battle against the inclinations of the natural heart {BEcho, December 1, 1892 par. 4} The following quote brings out that the flesh brings to the Christian a warfare that must continue until one is translated: Appetite and passion must be brought under the control of the Holy Spirit. There is no end to the warfare this side of eternity. (Counsels to Teachers, p. 20) But sometimes a sin remains for a time without being completely overcome (these are what EGW calls “inward evils” or “idols within”) – like my problem with soap operas, for instance, or the example you gave of the ex-smoker who still misses the pleasure of smoking. (I’m not sure now whether this needs an external stimulus.) You're thinking is that if one is tempted to do some sin that has been overcome, then one hasn't completely overcome it? That's what it sounds like. I'm thinking of the definition of temptation which EGW gives, about temptation is temptation if there if one is strongly motivated to do a certain act, and one knows one can fall into the temptation, but one can overcome by the power of the Holy Spirit. I'm assuming you know the statement I'm speaking of. If not, I can try to find it. So, using that definition, that one is tempted when one is strongly motivated to do a wrong act (or words to this effect), you don't believe a sin is completely overcome, unless one is not tempted to do that sin (except by Satan, or an agent of his, in which case the temptation does not involve any desire to do the given act, but involves a trick of some sort of Satan). Besides that, I think our appetites and passions make us always vulnerable to temptations (but I think that, for the converted, a temptation involving this would need an external stimulus/suggestion). What's an example of an external stimulus, besides Satan or an agent of his? Why wouldn't a memory of this same stimulus cause a temptation? For the brain, there's no difference. I don't understand why you're making a distinction here. T:Why do you think believers are only tempted by external stimuli?
R:Well, there are 3 sources of temptation: the world, the flesh, and the devil. Obviously the world and the devil are external stimuli. This isn't obvious. Says Jesus, "Be of good cheer; I have overcome the world." (1 John 2:16 quoted) In overcoming the world, then, Christ overcame "the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life,"--all things which are "not of the Father."
The world which Christ overcame was in His flesh. It was "the enmity." "the desires of the flesh." (E. J. Hibbard; The Two Law;emphasis original) As to the "flesh," I would say it depends. If it refers to the carnal mind, then perhaps an external stimulus isn't necessary. We're not talking about the carnal mind. Christ didn't take a carnal mind. We're just talking about what Christ assumed. If it refers to the body, it seems to me that, for the Christian, an external stimulus is necessary. I'm asking why you think this. I don't see how you can distinguish between an external stimulus and the memory of that same stimulus. I'm also basing myself on Christ's temptations related in the Bible - the devil was always present in all of them. We go could at this from the other direction just as well. That is, Christ was tempted in all points as we are. How are we tempted? Only by the devil? If any of our temptations do not involve the devil, then not all of Christ's temptations involved the devil.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith?
[Re: Tom]
#128781
11/11/10 11:39 AM
11/11/10 11:39 AM
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Joined: Nov 2004
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Brazil
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R: “A genuine conversion changes hereditary and cultivated tendencies to wrong.” {Mar 237.2}... The behavior changes because the tendencies are changed. T: You're saying the DNA changes? That seems to be what you're saying. I don't know how else to interpret what you're writing. If it's not the DNA, it would have to be behavior related, wouldn't it? What else is there? Tom, If we don’t even know how tendencies are transmitted, how can we know how they are changed? However, EGW says that they can be changed. As I said, if we are born with defective neural pathways, neural pathways can be rerouted. It doesn’t seem to me that character tendencies are transmitted through the DNA. As I’ve pointed out in previous discussions, if this was the case, Adam could never have transmitted sinful tendencies to his children, since he transmitted to them acquired tendencies, not inherited tendencies. R: For instance, if someone completely overcame the smoking habit, memories won’t be a problem. T: By "not a problem," you mean, "not a temptation"? It's sounding to me like you're believing in holy flesh, or, perhaps better stated, your belief is that "sinful flesh" doesn't involve sinful things... I know many people who completely overcame a habit and who don’t consider it a temptation any longer. For instance, I used to like alcoholic beverages, meat, dancing. I remember the pleasurable sensations of drinking beer, or of eating fried fish, or of dancing. However, they don’t constitute a temptation to me any longer. I’m not “strongly motivated” to do any of these things. You're thinking is that if one is tempted to do some sin that has been overcome, then one hasn't completely overcome it? From my experience, I would say yes. Despite my resolution to not do it, I was “strongly motivated” to watch soap operas until I really overcame the habit. You should remember that our appetites and passions do not constitute sins in themselves, and that they can’t be “overcome”; they should be controlled. However, the wrong use of these passions constitutes sin and must be overcome. For instance, would you say that a pedophile who is “strongly motivated” to repeat his former behavior has really overcome his habit? R: Besides that, I think our appetites and passions make us always vulnerable to temptations (but I think that, for the converted, a temptation involving this would need an external stimulus/suggestion). T: What's an example of an external stimulus, besides Satan or an agent of his? Why wouldn't a memory of this same stimulus cause a temptation? Because, as I said, a memory can be repelled; this is not always true of an external stimulus. Joseph comes to mind. R: As to the "flesh," I would say it depends. If it refers to the carnal mind, then perhaps an external stimulus isn't necessary. T: We're not talking about the carnal mind. Christ didn't take a carnal mind. We're just talking about what Christ assumed. Yes, Christ didn’t have “inward evils,” “idols within” to overcome; we do, even being Christians, because transformation of nature is a gradual process. R: I'm also basing myself on Christ's temptations related in the Bible - the devil was always present in all of them. T: We go could at this from the other direction just as well. That is, Christ was tempted in all points as we are. How are we tempted? Only by the devil? If any of our temptations do not involve the devil, then not all of Christ's temptations involved the devil. First, Christ didn’t even have the memory of past sins to tempt Him. Second, there is no temptation of Christ related in the Bible which doesn’t involve the devil – even those which involved His thoughts. And third, as I said in my post #128320, being tempted from within doesn’t necessarily exclude an external stimulus.
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Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith?
[Re: Rosangela]
#128802
11/11/10 07:35 PM
11/11/10 07:35 PM
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OP
Active Member 2012
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Joined: Aug 2004
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R: “A genuine conversion changes hereditary and cultivated tendencies to wrong.” {Mar 237.2}... The behavior changes because the tendencies are changed. T: You're saying the DNA changes? That seems to be what you're saying. I don't know how else to interpret what you're writing. If it's not the DNA, it would have to be behavior related, wouldn't it? What else is there?
R:Tom, If we don’t even know how tendencies are transmitted, how can we know how they are changed? We know how they're transmitted. Why do you think we don't? The behavior tendencies we have are changed as we develop new habits. However, EGW says that they can be changed. As I said, if we are born with defective neural pathways, neural pathways can be rerouted. We develop the neural pathways by our habits. It doesn’t seem to me that character tendencies are transmitted through the DNA. As I’ve pointed out in previous discussions, if this was the case, Adam could never have transmitted sinful tendencies to his children, since he transmitted to them acquired tendencies, not inherited tendencies. This doesn't make sense to me. You're saying Adam transmitted to them acquired tendencies, not inherited tendencies? What does that mean? R: For instance, if someone completely overcame the smoking habit, memories won’t be a problem. T: By "not a problem," you mean, "not a temptation"? It's sounding to me like you're believing in holy flesh, or, perhaps better stated, your belief is that "sinful flesh" doesn't involve sinful things...
R:I know many people who completely overcame a habit and who don’t consider it a temptation any longer. For instance, I used to like alcoholic beverages, meat, dancing. I remember the pleasurable sensations of drinking beer, or of eating fried fish, or of dancing. However, they don’t constitute a temptation to me any longer. I’m not “strongly motivated” to do any of these things. Sure, that can happen, but is it necessary? That is, if one always steadfastly refused to participate in some type of behavior, even though one is tempted to do that behavior, does that mean the sin hasn't been overcome? To overcome a sin means you can't be tempted to do it? T:You're thinking is that if one is tempted to do some sin that has been overcome, then one hasn't completely overcome it?
R:From my experience, I would say yes. Despite my resolution to not do it, I was “strongly motivated” to watch soap operas until I really overcame the habit. You should remember that our appetites and passions do not constitute sins in themselves, and that they can’t be “overcome”; they should be controlled. However, the wrong use of these passions constitutes sin and must be overcome. For instance, would you say that a pedophile who is “strongly motivated” to repeat his former behavior has really overcome his habit? A pedophile is a good example of this, I think. I think a converted pedophile would take steps to avoid situations that would tempt him. For example, he could avoid certain locations, or web sites, etc. The pedophile, however, could be tempted by something outside of his control (some eternal stimulus, or a memory). If the pedophile turned away from that, chose to reject the thought, I don't think he would be committing any sin, nor would such behavior mean that he hadn't overcome the sin. R: Besides that, I think our appetites and passions make us always vulnerable to temptations (but I think that, for the converted, a temptation involving this would need an external stimulus/suggestion).
T: What's an example of an external stimulus, besides Satan or an agent of his? Why wouldn't a memory of this same stimulus cause a temptation?
R:Because, as I said, a memory can be repelled; this is not always true of an external stimulus. Joseph comes to mind. I asked for an example of an external stimulus, besides Satan or an agent of his. I asked why a memory of this same stimulus wouldn't cause a temptation. I don't see how your response addresses either of these questions. R: As to the "flesh," I would say it depends. If it refers to the carnal mind, then perhaps an external stimulus isn't necessary. T: We're not talking about the carnal mind. Christ didn't take a carnal mind. We're just talking about what Christ assumed.
R:Yes, Christ didn’t have “inward evils,” “idols within” to overcome; we do, even being Christians, because transformation of nature is a gradual process. Why does this matter to our discussion? R: I'm also basing myself on Christ's temptations related in the Bible - the devil was always present in all of them.
T: We go could at this from the other direction just as well. That is, Christ was tempted in all points as we are. How are we tempted? Only by the devil? If any of our temptations do not involve the devil, then not all of Christ's temptations involved the devil.
R:First, Christ didn’t even have the memory of past sins to tempt Him. We are tempted by having sinful flesh, and by having committed sin. Christ assumed our sinful nature, and bore our sin. He had the whole package, as far as temptation is concerned, and was able to be tempted in all points as we are, yet without sin. Second, there is no temptation of Christ related in the Bible which doesn’t involve the devil – even those which involved His thoughts. By "the devil" are you including people? If you're not including people, this isn't a true statement. Also, Christ's temptations on the cross involved his thoughts, as the psalms, for example, make clear. It doesn't say that Satan was involved in all of these thoughts. To name just one psalm, consider psalm 22. And third, as I said in my post #128320, being tempted from within doesn’t necessarily exclude an external stimulus. If a temptation from within includes temptations which involve external stimuli, than all temptations are temptations from within.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith?
[Re: Rosangela]
#128810
11/12/10 12:59 AM
11/12/10 12:59 AM
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SDA Active Member 2023
5500+ Member
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Joined: Feb 2006
Posts: 5,636
California, USA
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Arnold, I was missing your contributions in these discussions. I thought you might need some backup. It looks like I'm going to have some extra time on my hands, so I can be here a little more. Plus, the relationship between Christ's incarnation and RBF is a topic of great interest to me, and is a big reason, if not the biggest reason, why I'm not postlaps. I hope to have some time to flesh that out soon.
By God's grace, Arnold
1 John 5:11-13 And this is the testimony, that God gave us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. Whoever has the Son has life; whoever does not have the Son of God does not have life. I write these things to you who believe in the name of the Son of God, that you may know that you have eternal life.
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Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith?
[Re: Tom]
#128878
11/15/10 05:30 PM
11/15/10 05:30 PM
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5500+ Member
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Joined: Nov 2004
Posts: 6,154
Brazil
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T: You're saying the DNA changes? That seems to be what you're saying. I don't know how else to interpret what you're writing. If it's not the DNA, it would have to be behavior related, wouldn't it? What else is there? R: Tom, If we don’t even know how tendencies are transmitted, how can we know how they are changed? T: We know how they're transmitted. Why do you think we don't? The behavior tendencies we have are changed as we develop new habits. ? What proof is there that they are transmitted through the DNA, as you believe? None whatsoever. Cultivated tendencies cannot alter the DNA, yet cultivated tendencies are transmitted to children. How do you explain that? “If Satan can persuade people to follow a course that is contrary to the principles underlying and running through every enactment of God's law, he has a chance to work upon their minds. One venturesome step in deceptive practises, under the specious direction of Satan, leads to a second such step. Those who follow this course depart from God. ... The mind becomes more and more infatuated, and the power to overcome temptation is destroyed. The tendencies thus cultivated are transmitted to the offspring, as Adam's disobedience was transmitted to the human family.” {ST, May 27, 1897 par. 8} We develop the neural pathways by our habits. Sure. Some of them. But there are innate and acquired neural pathways. Some pathways are already developed at birth. R: I know many people who completely overcame a habit and who don’t consider it a temptation any longer. For instance, I used to like alcoholic beverages, meat, dancing. I remember the pleasurable sensations of drinking beer, or of eating fried fish, or of dancing. However, they don’t constitute a temptation to me any longer. I’m not “strongly motivated” to do any of these things. T: Sure, that can happen, but is it necessary? That is, if one always steadfastly refused to participate in some type of behavior, even though one is tempted to do that behavior, does that mean the sin hasn't been overcome? To overcome a sin means you can't be tempted to do it? If someone is tempted to follow a sinful tendency, it’s because that sinful tendency wasn’t yet completely changed. This is not uncommon in the Christian’s life. However, if you remain forever in this condition in relation to the same sin, you are in slavery, not freedom. Like in my problem with soap operas. Loving something and being unable to do it is torment. Besides, sooner or later you end up falling into that sin, since it’s a weak point. This could never be called victory. R: Besides that, I think our appetites and passions make us always vulnerable to temptations (but I think that, for the converted, a temptation involving this would need an external stimulus/suggestion). T: What's an example of an external stimulus, besides Satan or an agent of his? Why wouldn't a memory of this same stimulus cause a temptation? R: Because, as I said, a memory can be repelled; this is not always true of an external stimulus. Joseph comes to mind. T: I asked for an example of an external stimulus, besides Satan or an agent of his. I asked why a memory of this same stimulus wouldn't cause a temptation. I don't see how your response addresses either of these questions. An example of an external stimulus: something you see or hear (intentionally or not). A memory of this same stimulus can cause a temptation - the temptation to continue thinking about it. If you continue thinking about it, you have another temptation: the temptation to do it. So, with the memory, you can stop with the first temptation - the temptation to continue thinking about it. With the external stimulus, you don't always have the option to repel it instantly - like in the case of Joseph. So you are tempted to do it. T: We're not talking about the carnal mind. Christ didn't take a carnal mind. We're just talking about what Christ assumed. R: Yes, Christ didn’t have “inward evils,” “idols within” to overcome; we do, even being Christians, because transformation of nature is a gradual process. T: Why does this matter to our discussion? Because you insist that Christ must have assumed everything we must fight against. R: First, Christ didn’t even have the memory of past sins to tempt Him. T: We are tempted by having sinful flesh, and by having committed sin. Christ assumed our sinful nature, and bore our sin. He had the whole package This is not true and never will be. Bearing the guilt of our sins and being tempted by the memory of past sins are two things so far apart from each other as the east and the west. R: Second, there is no temptation of Christ related in the Bible which doesn’t involve the devil – even those which involved His thoughts. T: By "the devil" are you including people? If you're not including people, this isn't a true statement. Also, Christ's temptations on the cross involved his thoughts, as the psalms, for example, make clear. It doesn't say that Satan was involved in all of these thoughts. To name just one psalm, consider psalm 22. When people mocked Christ, they were being inspired by Satan. Besides, Satan took the words of people and suggested thoughts to Christ’s mind. He [Christ] was struggling with the power of Satan, who was declaring that he had Christ in his power, that he was superior in strength to the Son of God, that the Father had disowned His Son, and that He was no longer in the favor of God any more than himself.--2T 214. {TA 202.4} R: And third, as I said in my post #128320, being tempted from within doesn’t necessarily exclude an external stimulus. T: If a temptation from within includes temptations which involve external stimuli, than all temptations are temptations from within. “Temptation from within” isn’t a term clearly defined, however, it seems to me, as I said previously, that temptations from without are those based in the world and the devil, and temptations from within are those based in the flesh, for the flesh is part of what you are. “Flesh” here might refer either to the body or to the carnal mind. Christ’s temptations in this respect were based in His body (appetites and passions), but not in a carnal mind.
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Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith?
[Re: Rosangela]
#128893
11/15/10 08:50 PM
11/15/10 08:50 PM
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OP
Active Member 2012
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Joined: Aug 2004
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R: Tom, If we don’t even know how tendencies are transmitted, how can we know how they are changed? T: We know how they're transmitted. Why do you think we don't? The behavior tendencies we have are changed as we develop new habits.
? What proof is there that they are transmitted through the DNA, as you believe? None whatsoever. Cultivated tendencies cannot alter the DNA, yet cultivated tendencies are transmitted to children. How do you explain that? Cultivated tendencies are transmitted either by DNA, through the womb, or by the influence (example) of parents upon their children. T:We develop the neural pathways by our habits.
R:Sure. Some of them. But there are innate and acquired neural pathways. Some pathways are already developed at birth. What's a specific example of something your thinking of? (Specific would be "sucking one's thumb" as opposed to "being selfish," which isn't specific).[/quote] T: Sure, that can happen, but is it necessary? That is, if one always steadfastly refused to participate in some type of behavior, even though one is tempted to do that behavior, does that mean the sin hasn't been overcome? To overcome a sin means you can't be tempted to do it?
R:If someone is tempted to follow a sinful tendency, it’s because that sinful tendency wasn’t yet completely changed. This could be genetic though, in the DNA. This doesn't change until translation. R:This is not uncommon in the Christian’s life. However, if you remain forever in this condition in relation to the same sin, you are in slavery, not freedom. Like in my problem with soap operas. Loving something and being unable to do it is torment. Besides, sooner or later you end up falling into that sin, since it’s a weak point. This could never be called victory. I'd agree with this. Waggoner writes: In this freedom there is no trace of bondage. It is perfect liberty. It is liberty of soul, liberty of thought, as well as liberty of action. It is not that we are simply given the ability to keep the law, but we are given the mind that finds delight in doing it. It is not that we comply with the law because we see no other way of escape from punishment; that would be galling bondage. It is from such bondage that God's covenant releases us. No; the promise of God, when accepted, puts the mind of the Spirit into us, so that we find the highest pleasure in obedience to all the precepts of God's Word. The soul is as free as a bird soaring above the mountain-tops. It is the glorious liberty of the children of God, who have the full range of "the breadth, and length, and depth, and height" of God's universe. It is the liberty of those who do not have to be watched, but who can be trusted anywhere, since their every step is but the movement of God's own holy law. Why be content with bondage, when such limitless freedom is yours? The prison doors are open; walk out into God's freedom. (The Glad Tidings) However, while "loving" something, and wanting to do it, but not doing so because one is afraid of the consequences could hardly be called "victory," I don't see how this would preclude a person who had given up smoking from having a memory which triggers a temptation to smoke. I don't see anything in inspiration which requires that in order to overcome a sin we have to not be able to be tempted to do that sin. R:An example of an external stimulus: something you see or hear (intentionally or not). A memory of this same stimulus can cause a temptation - the temptation to continue thinking about it. If you continue thinking about it, you have another temptation: the temptation to do it. So, with the memory, you can stop with the first temptation - the temptation to continue thinking about it. With the external stimulus, you don't always have the option to repel it instantly - like in the case of Joseph. So you are tempted to do it. This is what I was saying. What were you disagreeing with? T: We're not talking about the carnal mind. Christ didn't take a carnal mind. We're just talking about what Christ assumed. R: Yes, Christ didn’t have “inward evils,” “idols within” to overcome; we do, even being Christians, because transformation of nature is a gradual process. T: Why does this matter to our discussion?
R:Because you insist that Christ must have assumed everything we must fight against. He bore our sins and took our sinful nature. What's left out? R: First, Christ didn’t even have the memory of past sins to tempt Him. T: We are tempted by having sinful flesh, and by having committed sin. Christ assumed our sinful nature, and bore our sin. He had the whole package
R:This is not true and never will be. Bearing the guilt of our sins and being tempted by the memory of past sins are two things so far apart from each other as the east and the west. Scripture doesn't say that Christ "bore the guilt of our sins" but that Christ "bore our sins." Of course, bearing our sins involves bearing the guilt of our sins, but that's not all. For example, EGW writes that what made Christ's temptations in the dessert so difficult is that He was bearing our sins. R: Second, there is no temptation of Christ related in the Bible which doesn’t involve the devil – even those which involved His thoughts. T: By "the devil" are you including people? If you're not including people, this isn't a true statement. Also, Christ's temptations on the cross involved his thoughts, as the psalms, for example, make clear. It doesn't say that Satan was involved in all of these thoughts. To name just one psalm, consider psalm 22.
When people mocked Christ, they were being inspired by Satan. Besides, Satan took the words of people and suggested thoughts to Christ’s mind. By saying that, "there is no temptation of Christ related in the Bible which doesn’t involve the devil" you're not only including people, but thoughts that Christ had. Well, if the devil includes people and thoughts, I can't disagree that all temptations that Christ had in Scripture involved the devil, as how could this be disproved? I'd have to find some temptation Christ had that didn't involve His thoughts. R: And third, as I said in my post #128320, being tempted from within doesn’t necessarily exclude an external stimulus. T: If a temptation from within includes temptations which involve external stimuli, than all temptations are temptations from within.
R:“Temptation from within” isn’t a term clearly defined, however, it seems to me, as I said previously, that temptations from without are those based in the world and the devil, and temptations from within are those based in the flesh, for the flesh is part of what you are. “Flesh” here might refer either to the body or to the carnal mind. Christ’s temptations in this respect were based in His body (appetites and passions), but not in a carnal mind.
I don't think anybody thought in these terms in the 19th century. That is, I can't think of anyone who thought of the "flesh" as including the carnal mind. Indeed, I've already quoted to you from A. T. Jones that they did NOT think that way. Here's a quote from Haskell: "Christ is the ladder that Jacob saw, the base resting on the earth, and the topmost round reaching to the gate of heaven, to the very threshold of glory. If that ladder had failed by a single step of reaching by a single step of reaching the earth, we should have been lost. But Christ reaches us where we are. He took our nature and overcame, that we through taking his nature might overcome. Made ‘in the likeness of sinful flesh,’ he lived a sinless life. Now by his divinity he lays hold upon the throne of heaven, while by his humanity he reaches us."
This is fallen humanity with all its hereditary inclinations. He who was as spotless while on earth as when in heaven took our nature, that he might lift man to the exaltation of himself by his righteousness. (R&H 10/2/00) The first paragraph is from "The Desire of Ages." The second is Haskell's comment. This is an example of the thought.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith?
[Re: Tom]
#128925
11/16/10 10:14 PM
11/16/10 10:14 PM
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5500+ Member
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Joined: Nov 2004
Posts: 6,154
Brazil
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R: Cultivated tendencies cannot alter the DNA, yet cultivated tendencies are transmitted to children. How do you explain that? T: Cultivated tendencies are transmitted either by DNA, through the womb, or by the influence (example) of parents upon their children. The context makes clear that the passage isn’t speaking of the womb or of influence. So, again, if cultivated tendencies cannot alter the DNA, how could they be transmitted through the DNA? T: We develop the neural pathways by our habits. R: Sure. Some of them. But there are innate and acquired neural pathways. Some pathways are already developed at birth. T: What's a specific example of something your thinking of? (Specific would be "sucking one's thumb" as opposed to "being selfish," which isn't specific). All instincts, but let’s speak about the need to suckle. On thinking about this, I realized that people are born with this instinct, but it naturally ceases to exist later in life. R: If someone is tempted to follow a sinful tendency, it’s because that sinful tendency wasn’t yet completely changed. T: This could be genetic though, in the DNA. This doesn't change until translation. It must change. The neural pathway ceases to be used, just like in the case of any habit acquired later in life. There is no difference between inherited and cultivated tendencies. Memories about both will remain. The possibility of reviving the habit will remain for both. However, while "loving" something, and wanting to do it, but not doing so because one is afraid of the consequences could hardly be called "victory," I don't see how this would preclude a person who had given up smoking from having a memory which triggers a temptation to smoke. It doesn’t preclude the occurrence of a temptation triggered by a memory, but when you have really overcome the tendency, the memory of it will no longer fascinate you. You will be able to see that the pleasure offered by the temptation brings suffering in its train. T: This is what I was saying. What were you disagreeing with? I’m too lazy to read everything again in order to find out. R: Yes, Christ didn’t have “inward evils,” “idols within” to overcome; we do, even being Christians, because transformation of nature is a gradual process. T: Why does this matter to our discussion? R: Because you insist that Christ must have assumed everything we must fight against. T: He bore our sins and took our sinful nature. What's left out? “Inward evils” and “idols within.” R: This is not true and never will be. Bearing the guilt of our sins and being tempted by the memory of past sins are two things so far apart from each other as the east and the west. T: Scripture doesn't say that Christ "bore the guilt of our sins" but that Christ "bore our sins." Of course, bearing our sins involves bearing the guilt of our sins, but that's not all. For example, EGW writes that what made Christ's temptations in the dessert so difficult is that He was bearing our sins. The anguish for bearing the guilt of our sins made the temptations even worse. But Christ’s temptations in the desert were His temptations, not ours. Christ wasn’t tempted to watch soap operas, but He knows what it is to be strongly motivated to do something which is against God’s will, so He could understand my struggle. By saying that, "there is no temptation of Christ related in the Bible which doesn’t involve the devil" you're not only including people, but thoughts that Christ had. Well, if the devil includes people and thoughts, I can't disagree that all temptations that Christ had in Scripture involved the devil, as how could this be disproved? I'd have to find some temptation Christ had that didn't involve His thoughts. If people are being Satan’s instruments, like the serpent or Eve, or people around the cross, they are just speaking Satan’s words. As to thoughts, I’m referring to the thoughts suggested by Satan in the Gethsemane and on the cross, which Ellen White describes in detail. R: “Temptation from within” isn’t a term clearly defined, however, it seems to me, as I said previously, that temptations from without are those based in the world and the devil, and temptations from within are those based in the flesh, for the flesh is part of what you are. “Flesh” here might refer either to the body or to the carnal mind. Christ’s temptations in this respect were based in His body (appetites and passions), but not in a carnal mind. T: I don't think anybody thought in these terms in the 19th century. That is, I can't think of anyone who thought of the "flesh" as including the carnal mind. Indeed, I've already quoted to you from A. T. Jones that they did NOT think that way. Yes, I know. But I believe that this position can be defended by both the Bible and EGW. In Romans 8:1, 4, 5, 12, 13; 2 Cor. 10:3, 2 Pet. 2:10, the expression “according to the flesh” means “according to the carnal mind”.
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Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith?
[Re: Tom]
#128936
11/17/10 07:45 AM
11/17/10 07:45 AM
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SDA Active Member 2023
5500+ Member
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Joined: Feb 2006
Posts: 5,636
California, USA
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Cultivated tendencies are transmitted either by DNA, through the womb, or by the influence (example) of parents upon their children. Here's the last part of that quote: The tendencies thus cultivated are transmitted to the offspring, as Adam's disobedience was transmitted to the human family. {ST, May 27, 1897 par. 8} It seems to say that cultivated tendencies are transmitted the same way that Adam's disobedience was transmitted. You gave three possibilities: 1) DNA 2) the womb 3) by influence/example When Adam disobeyed, there was nobody in the womb, so that's not the way. At the time, there was nobody to influence or give an example to, so that's not the way. The only way left is DNA. So are you saying that when we cultivate sin, our DNA is changed in a way that is passed on to our children? IOW, the flesh can be changed by our sinful choices, right? We are told that where sin abounds, grace abounds much more. If sin can degrade, is it too hard to believe that grace can uplift? If sin can corrupt the nature, isn't it possible that grace can redeem it? I believe it can. That's one reason why I'm not postlaps - postlaps only see the power of sin to ruin, but not the power of grace to restore. RBF is all about the power of grace to save us from even the lowest depths of sin. One more thing: "Adam's disobedience was transmitted to the human family." She did not say a "tendency" to disobedience was transmitted. She did not say a "weakness" was transmitted. It was "disobedience" that was transmitted. Such is our inheritance from our father. Did Jesus have the same inheritance from His Father? Furthermore, disobedience always comes with death. Hence, our inheritance from Adam - not through the womb or by example, but by DNA (if you are correct) - is condemnation and death. Did Jesus have the same inheritance? Jesus was righteous, and we are called to be righteous. But how? Is it righteousness by imitation? Is it righteousness by replication? No, it is righteousness by faith.
By God's grace, Arnold
1 John 5:11-13 And this is the testimony, that God gave us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. Whoever has the Son has life; whoever does not have the Son of God does not have life. I write these things to you who believe in the name of the Son of God, that you may know that you have eternal life.
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Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith?
[Re: asygo]
#128937
11/17/10 12:14 PM
11/17/10 12:14 PM
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Active Member 2011
3500+ Member
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Joined: May 2002
Posts: 3,965
Sweden
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When Adam sinned, his DNA was perfect, as was the DNA of Kain when he murdered his brother. Therefore DNA also can not be related to the causes of sin. Popular media likes to play the game "overstate the importance of DNA". There is no good reason to follow that lead.
Galatians 2 21 I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.
It is so hazardous to take here a little and there a little. If you put the right little's together you can make the bible teach anything you wish. //Graham Maxwell
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Here is the link to this week's Sabbath School Lesson Study and Discussion Material: Click Here
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