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Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith? [Re: Rosangela] #128944
11/17/10 02:10 PM
11/17/10 02:10 PM
Tom  Offline OP
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Originally Posted By: Rosangela
R: Cultivated tendencies cannot alter the DNA, yet cultivated tendencies are transmitted to children. How do you explain that?

T: Cultivated tendencies are transmitted either by DNA, through the womb, or by the influence (example) of parents upon their children.

R:The context makes clear that the passage isn’t speaking of the womb or of influence. So, again, if cultivated tendencies cannot alter the DNA, how could they be transmitted through the DNA?


I think she's talking about influence. DNA wouldn't make sense, right? I think she's saying that the wicked traits are developed and then transmitted by means of influence to the children. It's like when she explains that God would visit the wicked for three or four generations, and she explains that it's usually the case that children follow after the example of their parents.

Quote:
T: We develop the neural pathways by our habits.

R: Sure. Some of them. But there are innate and acquired neural pathways. Some pathways are already developed at birth.

T: What's a specific example of something your thinking of? (Specific would be "sucking one's thumb" as opposed to "being selfish," which isn't specific).

R:All instincts, but let’s speak about the need to suckle. On thinking about this, I realized that people are born with this instinct, but it naturally ceases to exist later in life.


I was asking for an example of a specific sinful neural pathway which one is born with rather then developing by means of a habit.

Quote:

R: If someone is tempted to follow a sinful tendency, it’s because that sinful tendency wasn’t yet completely changed.

T: This could be genetic though, in the DNA. This doesn't change until translation.

R:It must change. The neural pathway ceases to be used, just like in the case of any habit acquired later in life.


Neural pathway is developed. It's not DNA.

Quote:
There is no difference between inherited and cultivated tendencies.


From DNA we can obtain inherited tendencies. These are not sin. If we develop tendencies to sin, that's sin.

Quote:
Memories about both will remain. The possibility of reviving the habit will remain for both.


Not sure what the point is here.

Quote:
T:
However, while "loving" something, and wanting to do it, but not doing so because one is afraid of the consequences could hardly be called "victory," I don't see how this would preclude a person who had given up smoking from having a memory which triggers a temptation to smoke.

R:It doesn’t preclude the occurrence of a temptation triggered by a memory, but when you have really overcome the tendency, the memory of it will no longer fascinate you.


Not "fascinate" but tempt. You feel the temptation, but reject it immediately. That's what Christ did. This isn't sin.

Quote:
You will be able to see that the pleasure offered by the temptation brings suffering in its train.


Exactly. The mind gets involved, and rejects the temptation, and there is no sin.

Quote:
R: Yes, Christ didn’t have “inward evils,” “idols within” to overcome; we do, even being Christians, because transformation of nature is a gradual process.
T: Why does this matter to our discussion?
R: Because you insist that Christ must have assumed everything we must fight against.
T: He bore our sins and took our sinful nature. What's left out?

“Inward evils” and “idols within.”


That's "sin" isn't it? That is, when we're told that Christ bore the sin of the world, isn't this included? Or some sins are left out?

Quote:
R: This is not true and never will be. Bearing the guilt of our sins and being tempted by the memory of past sins are two things so far apart from each other as the east and the west.

T: Scripture doesn't say that Christ "bore the guilt of our sins" but that Christ "bore our sins." Of course, bearing our sins involves bearing the guilt of our sins, but that's not all. For example, EGW writes that what made Christ's temptations in the dessert so difficult is that He was bearing our sins.

R:The anguish for bearing the guilt of our sins made the temptations even worse.


I'm pretty sure this isn't what she said.

Quote:
But Christ’s temptations in the desert were His temptations, not ours.


I'm pretty sure she said pretty much the reverse of this. Something to the effect that people don't get the benefit out of Christ's temptations because of this reasoning.

Quote:
Christ wasn’t tempted to watch soap operas, but He knows what it is to be strongly motivated to do something which is against God’s will, so He could understand my struggle.


He could understand the struggle because He bore your sin in your nature, and was tempted as you are tempted. He still understands your struggle (not necessarily with this, as this may not be a struggle, but whatever struggles you have, He understands).

I've to got to find something Fifield wrote regarding this. Hold on a sec.

Found it! Took a lot of searching.

Quote:
It is my experience that in nine cases out of ten, when men consider those temptations in the fourth chapter of Matthew, which are typical of all his temptations, they fail to recognize their likeness to our own. They make him tempted in all points like as we are not, rather than like as we are. (Fifield; 1897 GCB, Sermon #1)


This is what I was reminded of. This sermon is an amazing sermon. It can be found here: http://www.heavenlysanctuary.com/article.php/20060825145326102

I was blown away when I read this sermon. I got the 1897 GCB to read Waggoner, and stumbled into Fifield.

Quote:

T:By saying that, "there is no temptation of Christ related in the Bible which doesn’t involve the devil" you're not only including people, but thoughts that Christ had. Well, if the devil includes people and thoughts, I can't disagree that all temptations that Christ had in Scripture involved the devil, as how could this be disproved? I'd have to find some temptation Christ had that didn't involve His thoughts.

R:If people are being Satan’s instruments, like the serpent or Eve, or people around the cross, they are just speaking Satan’s words.


It's not that simple. They speak their own words, but their own words express Satanic thoughts, because they are governed by the same principles Satan is. Also Satan can motivate them, their hatred, etc., but their words and thoughts are their own.

Quote:
As to thoughts, I’m referring to the thoughts suggested by Satan in the Gethsemane and on the cross, which Ellen White describes in detail.


But this isn't the sum of His temptation. That is, if Satan didn't exist, it would not have been the case that Christ would not have been tempted. Not all of our temptations come from Satan, and neither did Christ's, as He was tempted in all points as we are.

Quote:
R: “Temptation from within” isn’t a term clearly defined, however, it seems to me, as I said previously, that temptations from without are those based in the world and the devil, and temptations from within are those based in the flesh, for the flesh is part of what you are. “Flesh” here might refer either to the body or to the carnal mind. Christ’s temptations in this respect were based in His body (appetites and passions), but not in a carnal mind.

T: I don't think anybody thought in these terms in the 19th century. That is, I can't think of anyone who thought of the "flesh" as including the carnal mind. Indeed, I've already quoted to you from A. T. Jones that they did NOT think that way.

R:Yes, I know. But I believe that this position can be defended by both the Bible and EGW. In Romans 8:1, 4, 5, 12, 13; 2 Cor. 10:3, 2 Pet. 2:10, the expression “according to the flesh” means “according to the carnal mind”.


I think it's really difficult, impossible really, to make the case (a case that makes sense), that everybody (SDAs) in the 19th century except Ellen White thought incorrectly about this, until SDA's became more enlightened because of the influence of other (non-SDA) churches in the 1950's. Until then the church fought against the pre-lapsarian ideas. We wrote books, articles, preached at the General Conference against these ideas, and Ellen White was present. It's just hard to believe that Ellen White would just sit by idly while Waggoner, for example, was arguing against the Holy Flesh movement in the 1901 General Conference session when, in reality, everything Waggoner said was wrong on the subject, while the Holy Flesh people were right.

Here's an excerpt of Waggoner's sermon directed against the Holy Flesh teachings:

Quote:
Was that holy thing which was born of the virgin Mary born in sinful flesh, and did that flesh have the same evil tendencies to contend with that our does?

Really (it is) the work of the devil to put a wide gulf between Jesus the Saviour of men, and the men whom He came to save, so that one could not pass over to the other.

(Christ) established the will of God in the flesh, and established the fact that God's will may be done in any human, sinful flesh.

(M)en like to conceal the fault of their ancestors, and if there be a blot anywhere in the family, that does not appear when the family record is written. Jesus Christ was 'born of the seed of David, according to the flesh,' and in the seed of David was Manasseh, who filled Jerusalem with innocent blood from one end to the other. In that line was Judah the adulterer, and the child born of incest, and likewise the harlot Rahab. All of that class who were set forth as the ancestors of Christ show that Jesus was not ashamed to call sinful men His brethren.(April 12th or 16th, 1901; GC session)


Supposedly Ellen White stood idly by while Waggoner, Jones, Haskell and others uttered error after error criticizing the holy flesh ideas related to human nature of Christ when she knew they were wrong and the Holy Flesh people were right, even though she penned things like this:

Quote:
It is important that in defending the doctrines which we consider fundamental articles of faith we should never allow ourselves to employ arguments that are not wholly sound. These may avail to silence an opposer but they do not honor the truth. We should present sound arguments, that will not only silence our opponents, but will bear the closest and most searching scrutiny. (Testimonies, vol. 5, pp. 707,708)


It's hard to imagine she would do this.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith? [Re: vastergotland] #128994
11/18/10 04:22 AM
11/18/10 04:22 AM
asygo  Offline
SDA
Active Member 2023

5500+ Member
Joined: Feb 2006
Posts: 5,607
California, USA
Originally Posted By: vastergotland
Therefore DNA also can not be related to the causes of sin. Popular media likes to play the game "overstate the importance of DNA". There is no good reason to follow that lead.

True, DNA is blamed for a lot of things, when the real culprit is the corrupt heart. If one's heart has been transformed into Christ's likeness, then DNA is powerless.


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith? [Re: Tom] #129033
11/19/10 05:58 PM
11/19/10 05:58 PM
asygo  Offline
SDA
Active Member 2023

5500+ Member
Joined: Feb 2006
Posts: 5,607
California, USA
Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
R:Yes, leave Christ's mind out of this. What I'm asking is, Does man's fallen nature include his mind? Yes or No?


The flesh and the mind are two different things. The flesh, of itself, cannot act contrary to the will of God. This precludes it from including the mind, because if the mind were included, this statement would be false.

First, an interesting observation: The topic is about "Christ's assumed human nature" and R asked about "man's fallen nature" but the response is about "flesh." I often see this "bait and switch" in discussions on this topic.

Let's talk about "nature" but including its use in inspired writings - not limited to the narrow postlaps definition.

Quote:
The nature of man is threefold, and the training enjoined by Solomon comprehends the right development of the physical, intellectual, and moral powers. {CG 39.1}

In the way the SOP speaks of man's nature, the mind is involved in at least 2 of the 3 aspects.

When Jesus assumed fallen human nature, did He also assume the fallen intellect and the fallen morality? Since we surely have fallen intellects and morals, does God propose to change these aspects of our nature?


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith? [Re: asygo] #129034
11/19/10 06:26 PM
11/19/10 06:26 PM
Tom  Offline OP
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Originally Posted By: asygo
First, an interesting observation: The topic is about "Christ's assumed human nature" and R asked about "man's fallen nature" but the response is about "flesh." I often see this "bait and switch" in discussions on this topic.


Yes, me too. When our pioneers spoke of Christ's assumed human nature, they all understood what was being talked about. For example:

Quote:
"Christ is the ladder that Jacob saw, the base resting on the earth, and the topmost round reaching to the gate of heaven, to the very threshold of glory. If that ladder had failed by a single step of reaching by a single step of reaching the earth, we should have been lost. But Christ reaches us where we are. He took our nature and overcame, that we through taking his nature might overcome. Made ‘in the likeness of sinful flesh,’ he lived a sinless life. Now by his divinity he lays hold upon the throne of heaven, while by his humanity he reaches us."

This is fallen humanity with all its hereditary inclinations. He who was as spotless while on earth as when in heaven took our nature, that he might lift man to the exaltation of himself by his righteousness.(Haskell; R&H 10/2/00)


The first paragraph is from "The Desire of Ages." The second is Haskell commenting. Haskell knew what Ellen White meant, as did the other pioneers, as they all spoke the same language on this topic, and all said the same thing. By now people understand Ellen White differently.

Ellen White wrote that Christ took "our sinful nature." I don't see how this could mean anything other than what Haskell wrote. If "sinful nature" included the mind, wouldn't that be a problem? A. T. Jones dealt with this by saying that Christ was made in the likeness of sinful flesh, not the likeness of sinful mind: leave His mind out of it. I don't see any alternative to what Jones said, or else how could it be said that Christ took "our sinful nature"?

Quote:
Let's talk about "nature" but including its use in inspired writings - not limited to the narrow postlaps definition.

Quote:
The nature of man is threefold, and the training enjoined by Solomon comprehends the right development of the physical, intellectual, and moral powers. {CG 39.1}

In the way the SOP speaks of man's nature, the mind is involved in at least 2 of the 3 aspects.

When Jesus assumed fallen human nature, did He also assume the fallen intellect and the fallen morality? Since we surely have fallen intellects and morals, does God propose to change these aspects of our nature?


"Nature" can mean different things, depending upon the context. The question is what she meant when she wrote things like that which is quoted from "The Desire of Ages" above, and Haskell has provided the answer.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith? [Re: Tom] #129037
11/20/10 12:50 AM
11/20/10 12:50 AM
Rosangela  Offline
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Joined: Nov 2004
Posts: 6,154
Brazil
Quote:
I think she's talking about influence. DNA wouldn't make sense, right?

To me it’s obvious she is talking about sinful tendencies passed through birth inheritance from Adam to his offspring. Is it your contention that Adam transmitted sinful tendencies to his children only through his example?

Quote:
I was asking for an example of a specific sinful neural pathway which one is born with rather then developing by means of a habit.

“The great hereditary and cultivated tendency to evil with Judas was covetousness. And by practice this became a habit which he carried into all his trading” (MS 28, 1897).

Quote:
Neural pathway is developed. It's not DNA.

???
What you are affirming does not make sense. I’ve just affirmed that there are innate neural pathways. A classic example is instincts. And, of course, when you inherit a sinful tendency, the kind of behavior correspondent to it is instinctive to you.

Quote:
T: He bore our sins and took our sinful nature. What's left out?
R: “Inward evils” and “idols within.”
T: That's "sin" isn't it? That is, when we're told that Christ bore the sin of the world, isn't this included? Or some sins are left out?

Again, bearing the guilt of our sins is by no means the same as being tempted by our temptations. Christ was never tempted to smoke a cigarette or to use drugs, but He knows the struggle of the cigarette smoker and of the drug addict, because He knew the maximum strength of temptation. Until I experienced suffering for the first time, I had no idea about what it really was, but after my first experience with suffering, I suddenly became familiar with the suffering of all people and could understand them. The same is true about temptation. If you have a weakness and know the pull of temptation, you know the struggle of others.

Quote:
He could understand the struggle because He bore your sin in your nature, and was tempted as you are tempted.

He didn’t have evil desires as I have. The desire I had of watching soap operas is evil in itself, but Christ had no evil desire. The impression I get is that post-lapsarians think that the more evil the desire, the stronger the temptation.


Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith? [Re: Tom] #129039
11/20/10 04:06 AM
11/20/10 04:06 AM
asygo  Offline
SDA
Active Member 2023

5500+ Member
Joined: Feb 2006
Posts: 5,607
California, USA
Originally Posted By: Rosangela
What she is explaining in the passage is precisely the opposite of what you are saying. She is pointing out that the word "flesh" in the Bible includes more than just the body, because the body of itself would not be able to act contrary to the will of God. She is saying that "flesh" is the same as "carnal lusts," and "carnal lusts" have to do with the mind, not the body. That's why the way to crucify the flesh is not by inflicting pain to the body, but by expelling the corrupt thought.

Originally Posted By: EGW
-The lower passions have their seat in the body and work through it. The words "flesh" or "fleshly" or "carnal lusts" embrace the lower, corrupt nature; the flesh of itself cannot act contrary to the will of God. We are commanded to crucify the flesh, with the affections and lusts. How shall we do it? Shall we inflict pain on the body? No; but put to death the temptation to sin. The corrupt thought is to be expelled. Every thought is to be brought into captivity to Jesus Christ. All animal propensities are to be subjected to the higher powers of the soul. The love of God must reign supreme; Christ must occupy an undivided throne. Our bodies are to be regarded as His purchased possession. The members of the body are to become the instruments of righteousness. {AH 127.2}

Originally Posted By: Tom
The "flesh of itself cannot act contrary to the will of God" means that the "lower passions" which "have their seat in the body" must be controlled by the mind. I don't see how you can get from this that the flesh incorporates more than just the body. She says that it has its "seat in the body." If anything, it would incorporate less than just the body.

I agree with Rosangela on this point. Surprising, no? wink Let's zoom in on the crucial part:
Quote:
We are commanded to crucify the flesh, with the affections and lusts. How shall we do it? Shall we inflict pain on the body? No; but put to death the temptation to sin. The corrupt thought is to be expelled.

We are told to crucify the flesh. Where should the focus be? She is clear: NOT the body. Rather, it should be in resisting the temptation to sin and expelling the corrupt thought. Both are centered on the mind, not the body.

The corrupt thought is clearly and obviously a matter of the mind. I trust that none will dispute that.

How about the "temptation to sin"? When Satan tempts us, will he achieve his goal of corruption if he merely succeeds in controlling our body to act a certain way? No. Physical action, of itself, is not sin. IOW, "the flesh of itself cannot act contrary to the will of God."

In order to fall into temptation in a way that corrupts, the mind must be enlisted on the side of Satan. Control of the body is not enough. Satan must gain control of the mind. In short, our will must contradict the will of God. The body, of itself, cannot do this. Sin is a matter of the mind.

When EGW gave details on how to crucify the "flesh," it was centered on the mind.


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith? [Re: Tom] #129040
11/20/10 04:12 AM
11/20/10 04:12 AM
asygo  Offline
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5500+ Member
Joined: Feb 2006
Posts: 5,607
California, USA
Originally Posted By: Tom
Christ had the same DNA we have, the result of 6,000 years of sin, the same heredity that we share, the results of which are shown in the history of Christ's earthly ancestors.

If the issue is damaged DNA, then my DNA is 50% more damaged than Christ's. Mine has 6000 years of damage, while Christ's only had 4000 years of damage.

And my ancestors were worse than His, especially immediate ancestors.


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith? [Re: Rosangela] #129041
11/20/10 04:14 AM
11/20/10 04:14 AM
asygo  Offline
SDA
Active Member 2023

5500+ Member
Joined: Feb 2006
Posts: 5,607
California, USA
Originally Posted By: Rosangela
This mind is part and parcel of our sinful nature - and of course it's that mind - not our body - which leads us to sin.

The duty of intelligent souls is to hold to the truth, to practice virtue. We are born with a disinclination to both. It is sad to find in one's own constitution an opposition to virtues that are commendable in the sight of God, as submission, charity, sweetness of spirit, and patience that will not be provoked. {TDG 34.3}

So true. The great controversy is over the mind, not the body.


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith? [Re: Rosangela] #129042
11/20/10 04:21 AM
11/20/10 04:21 AM
Tom  Offline OP
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Originally Posted By: Rosangela
T:I think she's talking about influence. DNA wouldn't make sense, right?

R:To me it’s obvious she is talking about sinful tendencies passed through birth inheritance from Adam to his offspring.


She refers to Adam, but that's not the subject of her statement, right?

Quote:
Is it your contention that Adam transmitted sinful tendencies to his children only through his example?


No. And similarly for parents today. Both cultivated and potential tendencies are passed from parent to their children, the former by influence and the latter by DNA. We don't pass cultivated tendencies by our DNA, right? For example, your former infatuation with soaps isn't passed through your children my means of your DNA, is it?

Quote:
T:I was asking for an example of a specific sinful neural pathway which one is born with rather then developing by means of a habit.

R:“The great hereditary and cultivated tendency to evil with Judas was covetousness. And by practice this became a habit which he carried into all his trading” (MS 28, 1897).


What's the connection? (between my question and this quote)

Quote:
Neural pathway is developed. It's not DNA.

???
What you are affirming does not make sense. I’ve just affirmed that there are innate neural pathways. A classic example is instincts. And, of course, when you inherit a sinful tendency, the kind of behavior correspondent to it is instinctive to you.


What's an example of what you're talking about? You quoted covetousness in the case of Judas, but I don't know what you're thinking. My understanding, in regards to human behavior, is that current scientific thought is that very little is instinctive. Did you learn differently?

Quote:
T: He bore our sins and took our sinful nature. What's left out?
R: “Inward evils” and “idols within.”
T: That's "sin" isn't it? That is, when we're told that Christ bore the sin of the world, isn't this included? Or some sins are left out?

R:Again, bearing the guilt of our sins is by no means the same as being tempted by our temptations. Christ was never tempted to smoke a cigarette or to use drugs, but He knows the struggle of the cigarette smoker and of the drug addict, because He knew the maximum strength of temptation. Until I experienced suffering for the first time, I had no idea about what it really was, but after my first experience with suffering, I suddenly became familiar with the suffering of all people and could understand them. The same is true about temptation. If you have a weakness and know the pull of temptation, you know the struggle of others.


The suffering is a good example. If you lose a child, that could help you sympathize with someone else who lost a child, or other relative or friend. However, if one was only tempted on the basis of being tricked, I don't see how that would lead one to sympathize with others who are tempted more deeply than that.

It would be as if your suffering consisted of something trivial, like losing a pet goldfish, or something like that. I wouldn't say that would qualify you to understand the suffering of others, but if you lost a child or spouse, that certainly would.

Quote:
As certainly as our sins, when upon us, are real sins to us, so certainly, when these sins were laid upon Him, they became real sins to Him. As certainly as guilt attaches to these sins and to us because of them, when they are upon us so certainly this guilt attached to these same sins of ours and to Him because of them, when they were laid upon Him.

As the sense of condemnation and discouragement of our sins was real to us when these sins of ours were upon us, so certainly this same sense of condemnation and discouragement because of the guilt of these sins was realized by Him when these sins of ours were laid upon Him.

Thus the guilt, the condemnation, the discouragement of the knowledge of sin were His—were a fact in His conscious experience—as really as they were ever such in the life of any sinner that was ever on earth. And this awful truth brings to every sinful soul in the world the glorious truth that "the righteousness of God," and the rest, the peace, and the joy, of that righteousness, are a fact in the conscious experience of the believer in Jesus in this world, as really as they are in the life of any saint who was ever in heaven.

He who knew the height of the righteousness of God, acquired also the knowledge of the depth of the sins of men. He knows the awfulness of the depths of the sins of men, as well as He knows the glory of the heights of the righteousness of God....

Therefore, when of Himself He said, "I can of Mine own self do nothing," this makes it certain forever that in the flesh,—because of our infirmities which He took; because of our sinfulness, hereditary and actual, which was laid upon Him and imparted to Him—He was of Himself in that flesh exactly as is the man who, in the infirmity of the flesh, is laden with sins, actual and hereditary, and who is without God. And standing thus weak, laden with sins and helpless as we are, in divine faith He exclaimed, "I will put My trust in Him." Hebrews 2:13. (The Consecrated Way To Christ Perfection, A. T. Jones)


This makes the point I've been trying to make.

Quote:
T:He could understand the struggle because He bore your sin in your nature, and was tempted as you are tempted.

R:He didn’t have evil desires as I have. The desire I had of watching soap operas is evil in itself, but Christ had no evil desire. The impression I get is that post-lapsarians think that the more evil the desire, the stronger the temptation.


The stronger the desire to do the thing being tempted, the strong the temptation. How evil the desire is isn't relevant. I don't think anyone thinks along the lines of what you're suggesting.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Is there a relation between Christ's assumed human nature and rightesousness by faith? [Re: Tom] #129043
11/20/10 05:03 AM
11/20/10 05:03 AM
Tom  Offline OP
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Originally Posted By: asygo
We are told to crucify the flesh. Where should the focus be? She is clear: NOT the body. Rather, it should be in resisting the temptation to sin and expelling the corrupt thought. Both are centered on the mind, not the body.

The corrupt thought is clearly and obviously a matter of the mind. I trust that none will dispute that.

How about the "temptation to sin"? When Satan tempts us, will he achieve his goal of corruption if he merely succeeds in controlling our body to act a certain way? No. Physical action, of itself, is not sin. IOW, "the flesh of itself cannot act contrary to the will of God."

In order to fall into temptation in a way that corrupts, the mind must be enlisted on the side of Satan. Control of the body is not enough. Satan must gain control of the mind. In short, our will must contradict the will of God. The body, of itself, cannot do this. Sin is a matter of the mind.

When EGW gave details on how to crucify the "flesh," it was centered on the mind.


This sounds like the following:

Quote:
Where does he start the temptation? In the flesh. Satan reaches the mind through the flesh; God reaches the flesh through the mind. Satan controls the mind through the flesh. Through this means—through the lusts of the flesh, the lusts of the eyes, the pride of life, and through ambition for the world and the honor and respect of men—through these things Satan draws upon us, upon our minds to get us to yield. Our minds respond and we cherish that thing. By this means his temptations assert their power. Then we have sinned. But until that drawing of our flesh is cherished, there is no sin. There is temptation, but not sin. Every man is tempted when he is drawn away thus and enticed, and when lust has conceived, when that desire is cherished, then it brings forth sin, and sin when it is finished bringeth forth death.

Some sinful desire [with us] is cherished, by means of which his temptations assert their power. But he could find nothing in the Son of God that would enable him to gain the victory. Jesus did not consent to sin. Not even by a thought could he be brought to yield to the power of temptation.

Thus you see that where the victory comes, where the battlefield is, is right upon the line between the flesh and the mind. The battle is fought in the realm of the thoughts. The battle against the flesh, I mean, is fought altogether and the victory won in the realm of the thoughts. Therefore, Jesus Christ came in just such flesh as ours but with a mind that held its integrity against every temptation, against every inducement to sin—a mind that never consented to sin—no, never in the least conceivable shadow of a thought. {GCB/GCDB , , p. 328.9}


Are you saying something different than this?


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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