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Re: What Was Secured by the Death of Christ.
[Re: Mountain Man]
#129045
11/20/10 04:25 AM
11/20/10 04:25 AM
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Active Member 2012
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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T: I couldn't possibly do justice to this in a short answer, but here's one way. The root of sin is selfishness. Selfishness causes one to do anything, regardless of the cost to others, to maintain one's spot, including cause death and destruction.
M:Are you saying sin/selfishness causes death and destruction? If so, how? Nothing you have said thus far explains how. What I just wrote explains how. The cross is a perfect example of this. Satan, trying to maintain his position, exerted his influence against Christ to have him crucified. This is an example of the principle. Please take the time to explain how sin/selfishness causes death and destruction. I realize you think you have made it clear dozens of times, but please take pity on me and explain it in detailed terms in your own words (don't just post quotes and assume they explain it). Consider what Satan did to Christ, and that should answer the question. Surely you can see how Satan caused death and destruction. 3. And, are you suggesting God need only cease preventing it and sin and/or Satan will cause death and destruction?
T: I would say GC 35-37 explains this, that EGW is suggesting this.
M: Please elaborate.
T: GC 35-37 says it fine. I'd just be copying and pasting sentences from that.
M:Therein lies the problem. GC 35-37 says God withdrew His protection and Roman soldiers killed thousands of men, women, and children. Is this what you mean when you say God acts now to prevent the full, inevitable result of sin? If so, how does this insight jive with the insight you mentioned above, namely, that sin/selfishness causes death and destruction? Here are some statements from GC 35-37: The Jews had forged their own fetters; they had filled for themselves the cup of vengeance. In the utter destruction that befell them as a nation, and in all the woes that followed them in their dispersion, they were but reaping the harvest which their own hands had sown. Says the prophet: "O Israel, thou hast destroyed thyself;" "for thou hast fallen by thine iniquity." Hosea 13:9; 14:1. Their sufferings are often represented as a punishment visited upon them by the direct decree of God. It is thus that the great deceiver seeks to conceal his own work. By stubborn rejection of divine love and mercy, the Jews had caused the protection of God to be withdrawn from them, and Satan was permitted to rule them according to his will. The horrible cruelties enacted in the destruction of Jerusalem are a demonstration of Satan's vindictive power over those who yield to his control. This brings out that: 1.By stubborn rejection of divine love and mercy, the Jews had caused the protection of God to be withdrawn from them. and as a result 2.Satan was permitted to rule them according to his will. By way of further explanation 3.The horrible cruelties enacted in the destruction of Jerusalem are a demonstration of Satan's vindictive power over those who yield to his control. I take it you see that Satan caused death and destruction in the destruction of Jerusalem. You have made it abundantly clear you believe God works to supernaturally prevent sinners from experiencing the inevitable result of sin. But it is very unclear what you believe the inevitable result of sin is. No, this isn't unclear at all. I've quoted DA 764 to here so many times I can't count. It says: At the beginning of the great controversy, the angels did not understand this. Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin. Surely you must have noticed this. How can you say the "inevitable result of sin" is unclear? Clearly it's death ("they would have perished.") Your constant reference to GC 35-37 suggests you believe the inevitable result of sin involves God withdrawing His protection and permitting either 1) the forces of nature, or 2) evil men, or 3) evil angels to causes death and destruction in which men, women, and children alike suffer and die.
If neither one of three things named above represents the inevitable result of sin, what, then, do you think does? If the inevitable result of sin involves God causing the wicked to comprehend the contrast between His character and their sinfulness, what, then, do you call the death and destruction that results when God permits either one of the three things named above to play out? You seem to switch back and forth between topics. If you're talking about the final judgment, that's one thing. There the sinner suffers in proportion to his sinfulness. If you're talking about things like the destruction of Jerusalem, then there people suffer as the result of sin, but in this lifetime we don't have the proportionality of suffering that there will be in the final judgment. People here often suffer for things which are not of their own doing. By the way, how does God ensure sinners suffer in duration and in proportion to their sinfulness without dying too soon or prematurely? In other words, how is it possible for some sinners to die after one hour of suffering whereas others are able to suffer for several days before dying? Why doesn't an equivalent degree of sinfulness cause everyone to die at the same time? For example, why does one white lie cause death almost immediately, whereas, millions of heinous sins does not cause death until after many days? And, who or what is their source of life while they are suffering unimaginable agony and anguish? The suffering occurs as a result of the judgment, wherein the sinfulness of each one is examined. It is the examination itself that results in suffering. The suffering is proportional to the sinfulness of each one, because the more sin (and light that one had while choosing sin), the more suffering. Also, when the "act of punishment" involves Jesus permitting evil angels to cause death and destruction in accordance with the limits He sets and enforces, when He "executes justice and judgment" in this manner, does it mean He "uses His enemies" to "employ" force and violence? I'm not sure what you're asking here. I think what I quoted above is clear. That is: Their sufferings are often represented as a punishment visited upon them by the direct decree of God. It is thus that the great deceiver seeks to conceal his own work. When the Spirit of God is persistently rejected, God at times permits Satan to have his way. Satan causes death and destruction, and represents this as coming from God, which, unfortunately, is how many see death and destruction occurring. However, the truth of God's character is revealed in and by Jesus Christ.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: What Was Secured by the Death of Christ.
[Re: Mountain Man]
#129063
11/20/10 07:39 PM
11/20/10 07:39 PM
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OP
SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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T: I couldn't possibly do justice to this in a short answer, but here's one way. The root of sin is selfishness. Selfishness causes one to do anything, regardless of the cost to others, to maintain one's spot, including cause death and destruction.
M: Are you saying sin/selfishness causes death and destruction? If so, how? Nothing you have said thus far explains how.
T: What I just wrote explains how. The cross is a perfect example of this. Satan, trying to maintain his position, exerted his influence against Christ to have him crucified. This is an example of the principle.
M: Please take the time to explain how sin/selfishness causes death and destruction. I realize you think you have made it clear dozens of times, but please take pity on me and explain it in detailed terms in your own words (don't just post quotes and assume they explain it).
T: Consider what Satan did to Christ, and that should answer the question. Surely you can see how Satan caused death and destruction. Satan didn’t literally kill Jesus on the cross. Jesus laid down His own life and took it up again. This means Jesus withdrew the breath of life from His human body and it died. Divinity obviously did not die. Later on, Jesus breathed back into His human body the breath of life and His human body came back to life. By the way, I’m not asking you to explain how sin/selfishness causes sinners to experience the first death. I am asking specifically about the second death. Elsewhere you’ve explained that comprehending the contrast between their sinfulness and God’s love during final judgment is what will cause them to suffer and die. 3. And, are you suggesting God need only cease preventing it and sin and/or Satan will cause death and destruction? T: I would say GC 35-37 explains this, that EGW is suggesting this. M: Please elaborate. T: GC 35-37 says it fine. I'd just be copying and pasting sentences from that. M: Therein lies the problem. GC 35-37 says God withdrew His protection and Roman soldiers killed thousands of men, women, and children. Is this what you mean when you say God acts now to prevent the full, inevitable result of sin? If so, how does this insight jive with the insight you mentioned above, namely, that sin/selfishness causes death and destruction? T: Here are some statements from GC 35-37: The Jews had forged their own fetters; they had filled for themselves the cup of vengeance. In the utter destruction that befell them as a nation, and in all the woes that followed them in their dispersion, they were but reaping the harvest which their own hands had sown. Says the prophet: "O Israel, thou hast destroyed thyself;" "for thou hast fallen by thine iniquity." Hosea 13:9; 14:1. Their sufferings are often represented as a punishment visited upon them by the direct decree of God. It is thus that the great deceiver seeks to conceal his own work. By stubborn rejection of divine love and mercy, the Jews had caused the protection of God to be withdrawn from them, and Satan was permitted to rule them according to his will. The horrible cruelties enacted in the destruction of Jerusalem are a demonstration of Satan's vindictive power over those who yield to his control. This brings out that: 1.By stubborn rejection of divine love and mercy, the Jews had caused the protection of God to be withdrawn from them. and as a result 2.Satan was permitted to rule them according to his will. By way of further explanation 3.The horrible cruelties enacted in the destruction of Jerusalem are a demonstration of Satan's vindictive power over those who yield to his control. I take it you see that Satan caused death and destruction in the destruction of Jerusalem. Again, I’m talking about final judgment and the second death. Will Satan somehow cause his own suffering and death? Or, will comprehending the contrast between his sinfulness and God’s love cause him to suffer and die? M: You have made it abundantly clear you believe God works to supernaturally prevent sinners from experiencing the inevitable result of sin. But it is very unclear what you believe the inevitable result of sin is.
T: No, this isn't unclear at all. I've quoted DA 764 to here so many times I can't count. It says: “At the beginning of the great controversy, the angels did not understand this. Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin.” Surely you must have noticed this. How can you say the "inevitable result of sin" is unclear? Clearly it's death ("they would have perished.") I’m asking you to explain what causes them to suffer and die according to their sinfulness? Obviously, death is the end result. M: Your constant reference to GC 35-37 suggests you believe the inevitable result of sin involves God withdrawing His protection and permitting either 1) the forces of nature, or 2) evil men, or 3) evil angels to cause death and destruction in which men, women, and children alike suffer and die. If neither one of three things named above represents the inevitable result of sin, what, then, do you think does? If the inevitable result of sin involves God causing the wicked to comprehend the contrast between His character and their sinfulness, what, then, do you call the death and destruction that results when God permits either one of the three things named above to play out?
T: You seem to switch back and forth between topics. If you're talking about the final judgment, that's one thing. There the sinner suffers in proportion to his sinfulness. If you're talking about things like the destruction of Jerusalem, then there people suffer as the result of sin, but in this lifetime we don't have the proportionality of suffering that there will be in the final judgment. People here often suffer for things which are not of their own doing. My focus is final judgment and second death. However, it begs the questions – What about God’s acts of punishment? What role do they play? Are they arbitrary? For example, when the Jesus permitted the Roman soldiers to kill thousands of men, women, and children, what role did it play? Was it arbitrary in the sense it wasn’t like smoking causes cancer? M: By the way, how does God ensure sinners suffer in duration and in proportion to their sinfulness without dying too soon or prematurely? In other words, how is it possible for some sinners to die after one hour of suffering whereas others are able to suffer for several days before dying? Why doesn't an equivalent degree of sinfulness cause everyone to die at the same time? For example, why does one white lie cause death almost immediately, whereas, millions of heinous sins does not cause death until after many days? And, who or what is their source of life while they are suffering unimaginable agony and anguish?
T: The suffering occurs as a result of the judgment, wherein the sinfulness of each one is examined. It is the examination itself that results in suffering. The suffering is proportional to the sinfulness of each one, because the more sin (and light that one had while choosing sin), the more suffering. 1. Why doesn't an equivalent degree of sinfulness cause everyone to die at the same time? 2. For example, why does one white lie cause death almost immediately, whereas, millions of heinous sins does not cause death until after many days? 3. And, who or what is their source of life while they are suffering unimaginable agony and anguish? M: Also, when the "act of punishment" involves Jesus permitting evil angels to cause death and destruction in accordance with the limits He sets and enforces, when He "executes justice and judgment" in this manner, does it mean He "uses His enemies" to "employ" force and violence?
T: I'm not sure what you're asking here. I think what I quoted above is clear. That is: “Their sufferings are often represented as a punishment visited upon them by the direct decree of God. It is thus that the great deceiver seeks to conceal his own work.” When the Spirit of God is persistently rejected, God at times permits Satan to have his way. Satan causes death and destruction, and represents this as coming from God, which, unfortunately, is how many see death and destruction occurring. However, the truth of God's character is revealed in and by Jesus Christ. When Jesus withdraws His protection and permits evil angels to cause death and destruction, within the limits He sets and enforces – do you think it portrays Jesus using “His enemies” to “employ” force and violence? And, does the resulting death and destruction constitute Jesus’ “act of punishment”?
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Re: What Was Secured by the Death of Christ.
[Re: Mountain Man]
#129064
11/20/10 07:41 PM
11/20/10 07:41 PM
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OP
SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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1. Do you think the loyal angels were unsure of God? 2. Were they unclear as to His traits and attributes of character? 3. Were they afraid of Him? 4. Did they somehow cease believing what they believed about God's character as they pleaded with the disgruntled angels in heaven? 5. Or, were they unsure of Satan's accusations regarding the law?
M: The questions above refer to time after evil angels were cast down to earth and before A&E were created. Please answer them with this in mind. Thank you.
T: Satan has raised doubts about God's character, and God's government. True. But this insight doesn’t address the questions above. Here’s how I imagine you answering them: 1. Do you think the loyal angels were unsure of God? Yes, they were unsure. That’s why God permitted the great controversy to play out. 2. Were they unclear as to His traits and attributes of character? Yes, they were unclear. It wasn’t clear to them that Satan’s accusations were untrue. 3. Were they afraid of Him? Not really. 4. Did they somehow cease believing what they believed about God's character as they pleaded with the disgruntled angels in heaven? To some degree. 5. Were they unsure of Satan's accusations regarding the law? Most definitely. T: Regarding your questions about the loyal angels which pleaded with the unfaithful ones, it should be noted that not all of the loyal angels did so. The angels seemed to be in different states regarding Satan's accusations. Some believed Satan completely, and took his side. Some were on the other side (the ones who pleaded with the rebellious ones not to rebel), and some were in the middle.
M: Please post inspired passages which confirm your hunch "that not all of the loyal angels . . . pleaded with the unfaithful ones. . . some were in the middle." Thank you.
T: The angels all made decisions. This doesn't mean that all holy angels were involved in convincing all unfaithful angels not to rebel. What do you mean by “some were in the middle” regarding their decision not to side with Satan? M:"Christ in you, the hope of glory." In essence, it is Jesus continuing to settle the issues surrounding the great controversy through the 144,000.
T: This is much better put than previously. If Jesus settled everything regarding the great controversy on the cross, why didn’t it end at the cross? Are there unsettled issues Jesus must settle through the 144,000 for the great controversy to end? M:All FMAs were dependent upon Jesus succeeding on the cross. Had He failed, God would have been forced to destroy all of them.
T: Them who? Forced by whom? “Them” refers to “all FMAs”. “Forced” refers to justice. M: However, the fact Jesus' death wouldn't have been necessary had A&E succeeded in Eden proves the loyal FMAs did not require it to be rendered eternally secure.
T: Christ's death was a sufficient but not necessary condition is what you're saying. We're not told about necessity, regarding which I've already expressed my opinion. However, we are told about sufficiency, which is what matters. The angels are only secure in looking at the cross. This is what the quote says. I've asked you several times why you think this is the case, but you haven't responded, I don't think. The death of Jesus was necessary to satisfy the demands of law and justice. His death established and confirmed the immutability of law and justice. “The wages of sin is death”, therefore, “death must come in consequence of man’s sin.” God was not at liberty to disregard the death penalty and save sinners. To redeem sinners He had to pay the redemption price, namely, the death of Jesus.
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Re: What Was Secured by the Death of Christ.
[Re: Mountain Man]
#129071
11/21/10 06:11 AM
11/21/10 06:11 AM
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Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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M: The questions above refer to time after evil angels were cast down to earth and before A&E were created. Please answer them with this in mind. Thank you.
T: Satan has raised doubts about God's character, and God's government.
M:True. But this insight doesn’t address the questions above. Here’s how I imagine you answering them:
1. Do you think the loyal angels were unsure of God? Yes, they were unsure. That’s why God permitted the great controversy to play out. I like the way I answered it better. Satan raised issues regarding God's character and government. God decided the best way to deal with these was to allow the respective governments and characters to be revealed. There would have had to have been some unsureness involved, wouldn't there? If not, why weren't they secure before the cross? 2. Were they unclear as to His traits and attributes of character? Yes, they were unclear. It wasn’t clear to them that Satan’s accusations were untrue. I think it would be more accurate to say it wasn't clear to them that Satan's accusations were entirely untrue. 3. Were they afraid of Him? Not really. I agree with this. 4. Did they somehow cease believing what they believed about God's character as they pleaded with the disgruntled angels in heaven? To some degree. I don't agree with this one. 5. Were they unsure of Satan's accusations regarding the law? Most definitely. No, I wouldn't say "most definitely." I don't think their concern was nearly as much with the law as with God's character and government, although, of course, the law of God is involved in His government, so that would enter into it. T: The angels all made decisions. This doesn't mean that all holy angels were involved in convincing all unfaithful angels not to rebel.
M:What do you mean by “some were in the middle” regarding their decision not to side with Satan? In between the two extremes I mentioned. M:"Christ in you, the hope of glory." In essence, it is Jesus continuing to settle the issues surrounding the great controversy through the 144,000.
T: This is much better put than previously.
If Jesus settled everything regarding the great controversy on the cross, why didn’t it end at the cross? You've asked this. It's been answered. The great controversy has been settled for angels and the unfallen worlds, but not for human beings. For human beings, it still goes on. Are there unsettled issues Jesus must settle through the 144,000 for the great controversy to end? The Great Controversy is still going on for human beings. M:All FMAs were dependent upon Jesus succeeding on the cross. Had He failed, God would have been forced to destroy all of them.
T: Them who? Forced by whom?
M:“Them” refers to “all FMAs”. “Forced” refers to justice. If Jesus had failed at the cross, God would have been forced to destroy all the beings in the universe He had created? This is your idea? And you think this is "justice"? Where do you get ideas like this? Why would you think this "justice"? Where have you learned what justice is? M: However, the fact Jesus' death wouldn't have been necessary had A&E succeeded in Eden proves the loyal FMAs did not require it to be rendered eternally secure.
T: Christ's death was a sufficient but not necessary condition is what you're saying. We're not told about necessity, regarding which I've already expressed my opinion. However, we are told about sufficiency, which is what matters. The angels are only secure in looking at the cross. This is what the quote says. I've asked you several times why you think this is the case, but you haven't responded, I don't think.
M:The death of Jesus was necessary to satisfy the demands of law and justice. His death established and confirmed the immutability of law and justice. “The wages of sin is death”, therefore, “death must come in consequence of man’s sin.” God was not at liberty to disregard the death penalty and save sinners. To redeem sinners He had to pay the redemption price, namely, the death of Jesus.
What does this have to do with anything we've been talking about? We've been talking about the security of angels as they look to the cross. Clearly this has to do with the revelation of God's character in contrast to Satan's, as the chapter "It Is Finished" explains. Satan was "cast down" (Rev. 12:10) when he was unmasked. Regarding this statement: God was not at liberty to disregard the death penalty and save sinners. This is looking at this the wrong way. It was only by means of Christ's death that God could save sinners. (M)an was deceived; his mind was darkened by Satan's sophistry. The height and depth of the love of God he did not know. For him there was hope in a knowledge of God's love. By beholding His character he might be drawn back to God. (DA 762)
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: What Was Secured by the Death of Christ.
[Re: Tom]
#129081
11/21/10 07:34 PM
11/21/10 07:34 PM
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OP
SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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M: If Jesus settled everything regarding the great controversy on the cross, why didn’t it end at the cross? Are there unsettled issues Jesus must settle through the 144,000 for the great controversy to end?
T: You've asked this. It's been answered. The great controversy has been settled for angels and the unfallen worlds, but not for human beings. For human beings, it still goes on. Why, then, did Ellen write the following: “Yet Satan was not then destroyed. The angels did not even then understand all that was involved in the great controversy. The principles at stake were to be more fully revealed. And for the sake of man, Satan's existence must be continued. Man as well as angels must see the contrast between the Prince of light and the prince of darkness. He must choose whom he will serve. {DA 761.3} M:All FMAs were dependent upon Jesus succeeding on the cross. Had He failed, God would have been forced to destroy all of them.
T: If Jesus had failed at the cross, God would have been forced to destroy all the beings in the universe He had created? This is your idea? And you think this is "justice"? Where do you get ideas like this? Why would you think this "justice"? Where have you learned what justice is? If Jesus had failed, what would have motivated unfallen FMAs to remain loyal and obedient? What would have rendered them eternally secure? How would God have justified destroying the evil angels? M: However, the fact Jesus' death wouldn't have been necessary had A&E succeeded in Eden proves the loyal FMAs did not require it to be rendered eternally secure.
T: Christ's death was a sufficient but not necessary condition is what you're saying. We're not told about necessity, regarding which I've already expressed my opinion. However, we are told about sufficiency, which is what matters. The angels are only secure in looking at the cross. This is what the quote says. I've asked you several times why you think this is the case, but you haven't responded, I don't think.
M: The death of Jesus was necessary to satisfy the demands of law and justice. His death established and confirmed the immutability of law and justice. “The wages of sin is death”, therefore, “death must come in consequence of man’s sin.” God was not at liberty to disregard the death penalty and save sinners. To redeem sinners He had to pay the redemption price, namely, the death of Jesus.
T: What does this have to do with anything we've been talking about? We've been talking about the security of angels as they look to the cross. Clearly this has to do with the revelation of God's character in contrast to Satan's, as the chapter "It Is Finished" explains. Satan was "cast down" (Rev. 12:10) when he was unmasked. . . “.” God was not at liberty to disregard the death penalty and save sinners.” It was only by means of Christ's death that God could save sinners I said, “The fact Jesus' death wouldn't have been necessary had A&E succeeded in Eden proves the loyal FMAs did not require it to be rendered eternally secure.” To which you responded, “The angels are only secure in looking at the cross. This is what the quote says. I've asked you several times why you think this is the case, but you haven't responded, I don't think.” I don’t understand how your response addresses my comment. I was talking about Jesus’ death not being necessary. You said something about sufficiency versus necessity and then detoured away from my question. So I went along with it and responded to “why you think this is the case”. That is, I think the angels were made secure by Jesus’ death because it proved the law is holy, just, and good. He established and confirmed law and justice. I’m still interested in why you think Jesus’ death would not have been necessary had A&E succeeded in Eden, and why you think it would have rendered them eternally secure. Also, what do you think Jesus would have done to render the unfallen FMAs eternally secure?
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Re: What Was Secured by the Death of Christ.
[Re: Mountain Man]
#129082
11/21/10 07:36 PM
11/21/10 07:36 PM
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OP
SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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Tom, please respond to 129063. Thank you.
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Re: What Was Secured by the Death of Christ.
[Re: Mountain Man]
#129102
11/23/10 12:26 AM
11/23/10 12:26 AM
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Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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T: Consider what Satan did to Christ, and that should answer the question. Surely you can see how Satan caused death and destruction.
M:Satan didn’t literally kill Jesus on the cross. Jesus laid down His own life and took it up again. This means Jesus withdrew the breath of life from His human body and it died. No it doesn't. Why would you think this? I mean, why would you think this means any sense? Unless you're not being literal. Then it might make some sense, but I don't know what you mean in this case. Divinity obviously did not die. Later on, Jesus breathed back into His human body the breath of life and His human body came back to life. You mean literally? What did He do? Stand by Himself, like a ghost, with one end breathing out and the other end breathing in? By the way, I’m not asking you to explain how sin/selfishness causes sinners to experience the first death. I am asking specifically about the second death. Elsewhere you’ve explained that comprehending the contrast between their sinfulness and God’s love during final judgment is what will cause them to suffer and die. I would say that's involved in their death. I get this from DA 764. God gives them existence for a time that they may develop their character and reveal their principles. This accomplished, they receive the results of their own choice. By a life of rebellion, Satan and all who unite with him place themselves so out of harmony with God that His very presence is to them a consuming fire. The glory of Him who is love will destroy them. Again, I’m talking about final judgment and the second death. Will Satan somehow cause his own suffering and death? Or, will comprehending the contrast between his sinfulness and God’s love cause him to suffer and die? I addressed this when I spoke of DA 764. I’m asking you to explain what causes them to suffer and die according to their sinfulness? Obviously, death is the end result. The same as I've said before. I've explained in great detail what I believe happens in the judgment. My focus is final judgment and second death. However, it begs the questions – What about God’s acts of punishment? What role do they play? Are they arbitrary? For example, when the Jesus permitted the Roman soldiers to kill thousands of men, women, and children, what role did it play? Was it arbitrary in the sense it wasn’t like smoking causes cancer? I'm not sure what you're asking, but in this life, justice is not fair, if that's what you're getting at. That is, not all the Jews who were guilty suffered, as some lived in previous generations. In particular, many who were responsible for Jesus' death had already died. T: The suffering occurs as a result of the judgment, wherein the sinfulness of each one is examined. It is the examination itself that results in suffering. The suffering is proportional to the sinfulness of each one, because the more sin (and light that one had while choosing sin), the more suffering.
1. Why doesn't an equivalent degree of sinfulness cause everyone to die at the same time? Why do you think it wouldn't? One variable that comes to mind would be the light one has. 2. For example, why does one white lie cause death almost immediately, whereas, millions of heinous sins does not cause death until after many days? From DA 764 we read that one dies when one separates oneself from God. I wouldn't think of death in terms of being caused by a white lie, but from one's separating oneself from God. The more there is to examine, the longer the judgment takes. 3. And, who or what is their source of life while they are suffering unimaginable agony and anguish? ? T: I'm not sure what you're asking here. I think what I quoted above is clear. That is: “Their sufferings are often represented as a punishment visited upon them by the direct decree of God. It is thus that the great deceiver seeks to conceal his own work.” When the Spirit of God is persistently rejected, God at times permits Satan to have his way. Satan causes death and destruction, and represents this as coming from God, which, unfortunately, is how many see death and destruction occurring. However, the truth of God's character is revealed in and by Jesus Christ.
M:When Jesus withdraws His protection and permits evil angels to cause death and destruction, within the limits He sets and enforces – do you think it portrays Jesus using “His enemies” to “employ” force and violence? Do you have some quote in mind? If so, yes, according to what the quote says. And, does the resulting death and destruction constitute Jesus’ “act of punishment”? Yes, according to the quote. That is, as GC 35-37 explains, when the Spirit of God is persistently rejected, God may permit that those who have rejected the Spirit to receive the result of their choice, to reap what they have sown, and this is their punishment.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: What Was Secured by the Death of Christ.
[Re: Tom]
#129103
11/23/10 12:48 AM
11/23/10 12:48 AM
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Active Member 2012
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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M: If Jesus settled everything regarding the great controversy on the cross, why didn’t it end at the cross? Are there unsettled issues Jesus must settle through the 144,000 for the great controversy to end?
T: You've asked this. It's been answered. The great controversy has been settled for angels and the unfallen worlds, but not for human beings. For human beings, it still goes on.
M:Why, then, did Ellen write the following: “Yet Satan was not then destroyed. The angels did not even then understand all that was involved in the great controversy. The principles at stake were to be more fully revealed. And for the sake of man, Satan's existence must be continued. Man as well as angels must see the contrast between the Prince of light and the prince of darkness. He must choose whom he will serve. {DA 761.3} For the reasons stated. The angels had been secured at the cross, but there was still more they could learn. The Great Controversy had not been settled for humans. So God has permitted Satan's existence to continue. M:All FMAs were dependent upon Jesus succeeding on the cross. Had He failed, God would have been forced to destroy all of them.
T: If Jesus had failed at the cross, God would have been forced to destroy all the beings in the universe He had created? This is your idea? And you think this is "justice"? Where do you get ideas like this? Why would you think this "justice"? Where have you learned what justice is?
M:If Jesus had failed, what would have motivated unfallen FMAs to remain loyal and obedient? What would have rendered them eternally secure? How would God have justified destroying the evil angels? These are good questions. I'm sure if Christ had failed, that would have been terrible. There's also the fact that God swore by Himself to Abraham to consider. I wouldn't begin to know how to answer your questions here, but I don't understand why you would conclude that God would be forced to destroy all FMA's. What would that help? T: What does this have to do with anything we've been talking about? We've been talking about the security of angels as they look to the cross. Clearly this has to do with the revelation of God's character in contrast to Satan's, as the chapter "It Is Finished" explains. Satan was "cast down" (Rev. 12:10) when he was unmasked. . . “.” God was not at liberty to disregard the death penalty and save sinners.” It was only by means of Christ's death that God could save sinners
M:I said, “The fact Jesus' death wouldn't have been necessary had A&E succeeded in Eden proves the loyal FMAs did not require it to be rendered eternally secure.” To which you responded, “The angels are only secure in looking at the cross. This is what the quote says. I've asked you several times why you think this is the case, but you haven't responded, I don't think.”
I don’t understand how your response addresses my comment. I was talking about Jesus’ death not being necessary. You said something about sufficiency versus necessity and then detoured away from my question. So I went along with it and responded to “why you think this is the case”. That is, I think the angels were made secure by Jesus’ death because it proved the law is holy, just, and good. This isn't mentioned in "It Is Finished." Instead what is mentioned is that it revealed Satan's character. He established and confirmed law and justice. This wasn't an overriding issue to angels. This is an overriding issue to some humans. I’m still interested in why you think Jesus’ death would not have been necessary had A&E succeeded in Eden, and why you think it would have rendered them eternally secure. I answered this. I said I think God would have devised some other way to demonstrate His love, and reveal the principles of His government, as well as that of the enemy, but I don't know how He would have done this. Also, what do you think Jesus would have done to render the unfallen FMAs eternally secure? Same answer.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: What Was Secured by the Death of Christ.
[Re: Tom]
#129134
11/24/10 04:44 PM
11/24/10 04:44 PM
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OP
SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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Tom, thank you for addressing my comments and questions. I'm glad that we can agree Jesus' death would have been unnecessary had A&E succeeded in Eden, and that God would have rendered sinless beings eternally secure in some other way. Do you think that "other way" would have worked to render A&E eternally secure had they failed? If not, why not? And, would it have worked for sinless beings for the same reasons, that is, would it have rendered them eternally secure if A&E had failed? If not, why not?
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Re: What Was Secured by the Death of Christ.
[Re: Mountain Man]
#129142
11/24/10 06:03 PM
11/24/10 06:03 PM
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Active Member 2012
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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I think whatever God would have had in mind would have worked for all beings.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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