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Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: kland] #131916
03/17/11 05:42 PM
03/17/11 05:42 PM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
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Originally Posted By: Tom
M: I suspect your definition of "deny the existence of God" is different than mine. I think it means they believe God is no more real than the tooth fairy. What do you believe it means?

T: From Romans 1, we know they know what can be know of God, because God has manifest it to them, as well as the fact that they are without excuse if they do not glorify Him nor give Him thanks. This does not apply to the tooth fairy, so we do look to disagree on this point. I understand to deny the existence of God to mean just what it says; to deny that God exists. Or, to state it in a different way, to assert that God does not exist.

Do people who "assert that God does not exist" also believe He is no more real than the tooth fairy?

PS - Say, Hi, to Fred for me.

Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Tom] #131917
03/17/11 05:50 PM
03/17/11 05:50 PM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
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Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Also, since this is specifically what we've been discussing, do you think the good works named above (helping feed, clothe, and shelter the poor and needy) performed by the people named above (who "deny the existence of the Creator, and challenge the God of heaven to strike them dead on the spot if their position is wrong") qualify as "kindly deeds and generous actions"? If not, why not?

T: If they are genuinely good deeds, then there was a dependency upon God, a power from outside oneself, as the quote you brought out previously states.

M: The fact you say "if" suggests you believe it is possible for people who "deny the existence of the Creator, and challenge the God of heaven to strike them dead on the spot if their position is wrong" to cooperate with God and perform "genuinely good deeds."

T: No it doesn't. That is, "if" does not have this implication.

M: Do you believe this is possible?

T: If a person hasn't committed the unpardonable sin, the person should be able to respond to the Holy Spirit. That would give them access to the power outside of themselves that they need.

Still not sure what your answer is to my question. Do you believe it is possible for people who "deny the existence of the Creator, and challenge the God of heaven to strike them dead on the spot if their position is wrong" to cooperate with God and perform "genuinely good deeds"?

Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Mountain Man] #131919
03/17/11 06:18 PM
03/17/11 06:18 PM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
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Referring to the Opening Post:

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
"God destroys no man" refers to self-destruction. "The law of self-serving is the law of self-destruction." {DA 624.1}

"[This] exalting of self, this self-righteousness, is nothing short of deception and self-destruction. {ST, December 17, 1894 par. 1}

"Self-renunciation is the great law of self-preservation, and self-preservation is the law of self-destruction. {ST, July 1, 1897 par. 13}

"Subjection to God is restoration to one's self,--to the true glory and dignity of man. {DA 466.5}

"Men and women must be awakened to the duty of self-mastery, the need of purity, freedom from every depraving appetite and defiling habit. {MH 130.3}

Nowhere in the SOP where the phrase "God destroys no man" is used (6 places) does it refer to God killing someone or God withdrawing His protection and permitting someone or something else to kill them. The phrase always pertains to hardening one's own heart beyond hope.

Some people, however, quote this phrase and use it mean God does not kill sinners. The fact is, tough, that God does indeed kill sinners. There are many examples of it in the Bible. The stories of Nadab and Abihu and the two bands of fifty who were burned alive speak rather forcibly to the point.

Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Mountain Man] #131927
03/17/11 07:10 PM
03/17/11 07:10 PM
Tom  Offline
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Quote:
M: I suspect your definition of "deny the existence of God" is different than mine. I think it means they believe God is no more real than the tooth fairy. What do you believe it means?

T: From Romans 1, we know they know what can be know of God, because God has manifest it to them, as well as the fact that they are without excuse if they do not glorify Him nor give Him thanks. This does not apply to the tooth fairy, so we do look to disagree on this point. I understand to deny the existence of God to mean just what it says; to deny that God exists. Or, to state it in a different way, to assert that God does not exist.

M:Do people who "assert that God does not exist" also believe He is no more real than the tooth fairy?


God has manifest to them, which is why they know of God. That's what Romans 1 says, isn't it? Has the tooth fairy done this?

Quote:
PS - Say, Hi, to Fred for me.


Fred says hello.

Quote:
M: The fact you say "if" suggests you believe it is possible for people who "deny the existence of the Creator, and challenge the God of heaven to strike them dead on the spot if their position is wrong" to cooperate with God and perform "genuinely good deeds."

T: No it doesn't. That is, "if" does not have this implication.

M: Do you believe this is possible?

T: If a person hasn't committed the unpardonable sin, the person should be able to respond to the Holy Spirit. That would give them access to the power outside of themselves that they need.

M:Still not sure what your answer is to my question. Do you believe it is possible for people who "deny the existence of the Creator, and challenge the God of heaven to strike them dead on the spot if their position is wrong" to cooperate with God and perform "genuinely good deeds"?


I think my answer does answer your question. In your hypothetical question, is the person you have in mind responding to the Holy Spirit?

Quote:
Nowhere in the SOP where the phrase "God destroys no man" is used (6 places) does it refer to God killing someone or God withdrawing His protection and permitting someone or something else to kill them. The phrase always pertains to hardening one's own heart beyond hope.

Some people, however, quote this phrase and use it mean God does not kill sinners.


She speaks of Pharaoh in these quotes, right? So, if what you say is true, then God did not kill or destroy Pharaoh.

Quote:
The fact is, tough, that God does indeed kill sinners.


Indeed. God kill Saul, for example. Also here it speaks of God's killing sinners in the context of the destruction of Jerusalem:

Quote:
What then will the owner of the vineyard do? He will come and kill those tenants and give the vineyard to others. Haven't you read this scripture: 'The stone the builders rejected has become the capstone; the Lord has done this, and it is marvelous in our eyes'? (Mark 12)


What happened in these incidents? The principles are spelled out in GC 35-37, in "The Destruction of Jerusalem."

Quote:
There are many examples of it in the Bible.


Yes, and they all are governed by the same principles. "What then will the owner of the vineyard do? He will come and kill those tenants ..." This is the same language used as in these other stories.

Quote:
The stories of Nadab and Abihu and the two bands of fifty who were burned alive speak rather forcibly to the point.


As does this: ""What then will the owner of the vineyard do? He will come and kill those tenants ..."


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Tom] #131961
03/19/11 05:20 PM
03/19/11 05:20 PM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
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Originally Posted By: Tom
M: I suspect your definition of "deny the existence of God" is different than mine. I think it means they believe God is no more real than the tooth fairy. What do you believe it means?

T: From Romans 1, we know they know what can be know of God, because God has manifest it to them, as well as the fact that they are without excuse if they do not glorify Him nor give Him thanks. This does not apply to the tooth fairy, so we do look to disagree on this point. I understand to deny the existence of God to mean just what it says; to deny that God exists. Or, to state it in a different way, to assert that God does not exist.

M: Do people who "assert that God does not exist" also believe He is no more real than the tooth fairy?

T: God has manifest to them, which is why they know of God. That's what Romans 1 says, isn't it? Has the tooth fairy done this?

Above you wrote, "I understand to deny the existence of God to mean just what it says; to deny that God exists. Or, to state it in a different way, to assert that God does not exist." We both deny the existence of the tooth fairy. As a child, though, I believed she did exist. Of course, later on I figured out it was my grandmother who left the coin under my pillow.

What I'm saying is - At some point in time everyone believes in the existence of God. Romans 1 makes it clear. But some people go on to deny the existence of God, that is, they no longer believe He exists. In my mind, to deny the existence of God is to conclude there is no such thing as God or gods. Like belief in the tooth fairy, they grow up and conclude God never was real. He is just the figment of our imagination.

You seem to have a different definition for the phrase "deny the existence of God." You seem to think nobody ever really comes to the conclusion that God never really existed, that to "deny the existence of God" means they believe He is more than just an imaginary person.

Quote:
M: Say, Hi, to Fred for me.

T: Fred says hello.

Didn't mean to leave out Wilma.

Quote:
M: The fact you say "if" suggests you believe it is possible for people who "deny the existence of the Creator, and challenge the God of heaven to strike them dead on the spot if their position is wrong" to cooperate with God and perform "genuinely good deeds."

T: No it doesn't. That is, "if" does not have this implication.

M: Do you believe this is possible?

T: If a person hasn't committed the unpardonable sin, the person should be able to respond to the Holy Spirit. That would give them access to the power outside of themselves that they need.

M: Still not sure what your answer is to my question. Do you believe it is possible for people who "deny the existence of the Creator, and challenge the God of heaven to strike them dead on the spot if their position is wrong" to cooperate with God and perform "genuinely good deeds"?

T: I think my answer does answer your question. In your hypothetical question, is the person you have in mind responding to the Holy Spirit?

You asked, "Is the person you have in mind responding to the Holy Spirit?" What I'm asking you, "Is it even possible for them to respond to the Holy Spirit (assuming they haven't committed the unpardonable sin)?"

Are you saying, Yes, people who "deny the existence of the Creator, and challenge the God of heaven to strike them dead on the spot if their position is wrong", and haven't committed the unpardonable sin, are more than capable of responding to the Holy Spirit and more than capable of receiving divine power to perform "genuinely good deeds"? If so, how do their works differ from that of the best of believers doing the same thing (feeding, clothing, and sheltering the poor and needy)?

Also, what about people who "deny the existence of the Creator, and challenge the God of heaven to strike them dead on the spot if their position is wrong", and who have committed the unpardonable sin, and who work beside the best of believers feeding, clothing, and sheltering the poor and needy - How would you describe their works (evil, selfish, good, holy, etc)? And, in practical terms (plopping food on the plates of the poor and needy as they rush by the assembly line), how do their smiles and works differ from that of the best of believers doing the same thing?

Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Mountain Man] #131962
03/19/11 05:41 PM
03/19/11 05:41 PM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Nowhere in the SOP where the phrase "God destroys no man" is used (6 places) does it refer to God killing someone or God withdrawing His protection and permitting someone or something else to kill them. The phrase always pertains to hardening one's own heart beyond hope. Some people, however, quote this phrase and use it to mean God does not kill sinners.

T: She speaks of Pharaoh in these quotes, right? So, if what you say is true, then God did not kill or destroy Pharaoh.

M: The fact is, though, God does indeed kill sinners.

T: Indeed. God kill Saul, for example. Also here it speaks of God's killing sinners in the context of the destruction of Jerusalem: "What then will the owner of the vineyard do? He will come and kill those tenants and give the vineyard to others. Haven't you read this scripture: 'The stone the builders rejected has become the capstone; the Lord has done this, and it is marvelous in our eyes'? (Mark 12) What happened in these incidents? The principles are spelled out in GC 35-37, in "The Destruction of Jerusalem."

M: There are many examples of it in the Bible.

T: Yes, and they all are governed by the same principles. "What then will the owner of the vineyard do? He will come and kill those tenants ..." This is the same language used as in these other stories.

M: The stories of Nadab and Abihu and the two bands of fifty who were burned alive speak rather forcibly to the point.

T: As does this: ""What then will the owner of the vineyard do? He will come and kill those tenants . . .

Of course, this topic is off-topic. The phrase "God destroys no man" isn't referring to God withdrawing His protection and giving evil angels permission to influence enemy soldiers to kill people. Her point in particular pertains to sinners hardening (destroying) their hearts beyond hope.

Do you agree? If not, please demonstrate why you believe otherwise. Thank you.

Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Mountain Man] #132013
03/21/11 03:06 PM
03/21/11 03:06 PM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
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Bump.

Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Mountain Man] #132017
03/21/11 03:49 PM
03/21/11 03:49 PM
Tom  Offline
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Originally Posted By: MM
Above you wrote, "I understand to deny the existence of God to mean just what it says; to deny that God exists. Or, to state it in a different way, to assert that God does not exist." We both deny the existence of the tooth fairy. As a child, though, I believed she did exist. Of course, later on I figured out it was my grandmother who left the coin under my pillow.

What I'm saying is - At some point in time everyone believes in the existence of God. Romans 1 makes it clear.


This isn't what Romans 1 says, Mike, as I've been pointing out. It doesn't say, "At some point in time everyone believes in God." It says that all are without excuse because what can be known of God is known by them because God has shown it to them, so that they should be thankful to Him and glorify Him. Everything is present tense. It's not aorist.

Quote:
But some people go on to deny the existence of God, that is, they no longer believe He exists.


This isn't what Romans 1 says.

Quote:
In my mind, to deny the existence of God is to conclude there is no such thing as God or gods. Like belief in the tooth fairy, they grow up and conclude God never was real. He is just the figment of our imagination.


This contradicts Romans 1, which says that what can be known of God is known because God has manifest it to them. Here's what it says:

Quote:
19Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.

20For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:


Note that what is known of God is known because God has shown it to them.

If God shows you something, you can deny it, but you know it's true. If this weren't the case, then those being judged would have an excuse.

Quote:
You seem to have a different definition for the phrase "deny the existence of God."


Primarily, it appears to me that we differ in regards to Romans 1, which you look to be interpreting to mean something it doesn't say.

"Deny the existence of God" means what it says: to deny that God exists, or to assert that He does not exist. You seem to have a different definition of the phrase, as if it meant "to believe that God is as much a figment of one's imagination as the tooth fairy," but this isn't what "deny" means.

Quote:
You seem to think nobody ever really comes to the conclusion that God never really existed, that to "deny the existence of God" means they believe He is more than just an imaginary person.


Again, to deny the existence of God means just what it says. Deny (from Webster's) means:

Quote:
1: to declare untrue
2: to refuse to admit or acknowledge


Quote:
T: I think my answer does answer your question. In your hypothetical question, is the person you have in mind responding to the Holy Spirit?

M:You asked, "Is the person you have in mind responding to the Holy Spirit?" What I'm asking you, "Is it even possible for them to respond to the Holy Spirit (assuming they haven't committed the unpardonable sin)?"


My understanding is that anyone who has not committed the unpardonable sin can respond to the Holy Spirit. Indeed, that's what committing the unpardonable sin means, to so harden one's heart that one cannot respond to the Holy Spirit.

Quote:
Are you saying, Yes, people who "deny the existence of the Creator, and challenge the God of heaven to strike them dead on the spot if their position is wrong", and haven't committed the unpardonable sin, are more than capable of responding to the Holy Spirit and more than capable of receiving divine power to perform "genuinely good deeds"?


I haven't said anything about "more than capable" anywhere.

I don't know if the hypothetical people you're speaking of have committed the unpardonable sin or not. Assuming they haven't, then they should be able to respond to the Holy Spirit.

They point I had been making is that they can't do good works apart from God, without a power outside of themselves, which is what the SOP quote says.

Quote:
If so, how do their works differ from that of the best of believers doing the same thing (feeding, clothing, and sheltering the poor and needy)?


If they are doing good works because they are responding to the Holy Spirit, I don't see why their works would differ.

Quote:
Also, what about people who "deny the existence of the Creator, and challenge the God of heaven to strike them dead on the spot if their position is wrong", and who have committed the unpardonable sin, and who work beside the best of believers feeding, clothing, and sheltering the poor and needy - How would you describe their works (evil, selfish, good, holy, etc)?


Since to do good works, one needs a power outside of ones (from the SOP quote), if they are not depending upon a power outside of themselves, then it would follow they are not doing good works, right?

Quote:
And, in practical terms (plopping food on the plates of the poor and needy as they rush by the assembly line), how do their smiles and works differ from that of the best of believers doing the same thing?


Let's see if we agree on the previous point. Here's the previous point.

1.The SOP quote says that to do good works, one needs a power outside of oneself.
2.In your hypothetical question, the people have committed the unpardonable sin, so are not depending upon a power outside of themselves.
3.Therefore they are not doing good works, as per the SOP quote.

Assuming we agree on this, you're now asking for detail as to how their works are different? This is your question? And you think it may have something to do with their smiles?


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Tom] #132018
03/21/11 04:16 PM
03/21/11 04:16 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Originally Posted By: MM
M:Of course, this topic is off-topic. The phrase "God destroys no man" isn't referring to God withdrawing His protection and giving evil angels permission to influence enemy soldiers to kill people. Her point in particular pertains to sinners hardening (destroying) their hearts beyond hope.

Do you agree? If not, please demonstrate why you believe otherwise. Thank you.


I agree that she is saying that sinners destroy themselves because they harden their hearts beyond hope.

Quote:
The Jews had forged their own fetters; they had filled for themselves the cup of vengeance. In the utter destruction that befell them as a nation, and in all the woes that followed them in their dispersion, they were but reaping the harvest which their own hands had sown. Says the prophet: "O Israel, thou hast destroyed thyself;" "for thou hast fallen by thine iniquity." Hosea 13:9; 14:1. Their sufferings are often represented as a punishment visited upon them by the direct decree of God. It is thus that the great deceiver seeks to conceal his own work. By stubborn rejection of divine love and mercy, the Jews had caused the protection of God to be withdrawn from them, and Satan was permitted to rule them according to his will.


The hardening of the heart cannot be disconnected from the destruction that is inflicted by Satan/sin when one removes oneself from the protection of God. Note: "O Israel, thou hast destroyed thyself;"

Yes, hardening of the heart is involved, it's the first step, but what Satan does is certainly involved. It's certainly not saying that "God destroys no man" means "God doesn't harden the heart, but after the heart is hardened, then God destroys."


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Tom] #132024
03/21/11 05:20 PM
03/21/11 05:20 PM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
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Originally Posted By: Tom
It's certainly not saying that "God destroys no man" means "God doesn't harden the heart, but after the heart is hardened, then God destroys."

I agree. The point is "God destroys no man" refers exclusively to sinners hardening their hearts beyond hope. It does not include the fact there are times when hardened hearts result in God withdrawing His protection and permitting them to suffer and die (which I suspect doesn't happen very often nowadays).

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