Contrary to common belief, and though I am extremely sympathetic to the Jews for this “Calamity” that they suffered at the hands of the Nazi, it really is no less different than any cause of mass, non-natural dying in our world. Over 20 million Russians lost their lives in WWII. Why isn’t the same question asked for them. I.e., what was God’s “purpose” in that. I think it all stems from a trace/underlying belief that God is still actively and directly, specially working for the Jewish Nation, His former “Chosen People,” which I do not see any Biblical support for such. Even SDA’s (e.g., Doug Batchelor) have this view, even seeing the reestablishment of Israel in 1948 as the fulfillment of Bible Prophecies (e.g., Ezek 37:11-14; Luke 21:24). So I do not see this, though atrocious calamity as being any different than e.g., why Soviet -styled Communist regimed murdered millions of their own citizen, why over 130,000 Japanese were murdered by American nuclear bombs, why there are 65,000,000+ abortions per year today, among many other such historical and current examples that could be listed here. I.e., it is all the result of man acting hatefully and murderously against their fellow man, and God equally allows all of this to occur, perhaps to allow the consequences of sin to take their course, which simultaneously show that living according to His ways are the better options to follow.

Gen 6:5, 11, 12 - God brought the flood to destroy all flesh (man and beast) on the earth because all flesh had become irreparably corrupt and violent on the earth. That is also why capital punishment was instituted immediately after the Flood (Gen 9:5, 6), in order to serve a deterrent from conditions getting that wholly murderous and violent in the future. The use of Flooding Water vs. fire, was the best way to achieve this destruction while not destroying the earth to a point where it became inhabitable and would require a re-Creation to be habitable, as will be the case from the comparable Second coming’s, Fire destruction.



I think it should be easy to readily, logically comprehend that adjudged capital judgement/punishment for their life of murder and violence was being executed. So no benefit for them was at all considered here.



As EGW states in PP 107.4, a “Third Curse “ occurred with the Flood from the necessity to healthily bury all of the dead bodies strewn about the earth. Much of the destruction to the Earth surface, including burying mineral treasures, occurred at that point. So, all things considered, the eight righteous then, and us today, only got the lesser of two evils. Making man work harder to live also serves to limit the level and extent of sinfulness that they engage in when they have too much leisure time on their hand, and physically non-demanding work to do otherwise.

For one thing, whether a limited blessing, but probably a curse, given the other persuable renewable energy alternatives, coal and crude oil was produced by the flood as stated by EGW in PP 108.2.



For the exact same reason, as I explained previously, why God did not intervene in many other instances when even innocent, bystanding civilians and people were unjustly being murdered. It is just the outworking of sin and all the direct actions of man. Again, God did not have any obligation, i.e., anymore, to defend the Jews in anyway.

This question of Why didn’t God... however can be asked of the hundreds of millions of faithful people who were martyred by e.g., pagan and then papal Rome. (Indeed cf. Rev 6:9-11). However it can here be Spiritually seen that their martyrdom probably has served to produce a much stronger and faithful crop of Christians today who remain faithful when they face much lessor oppositions.

Also the systematic and Militaristic atrocity of the Holocaust probably served to prevent similar and worst atrocities in the future, however as seen in e.g., Communist Regimes, Darfur, Rwanda, [and, relatedly, also Abortions] only when those who can do something (i.e., (militaristically) capable world powers) choose to do what it right and intervene in behalf of those being murdered. (And as much as I had to say it, the atomic bombings in WWII probably prevented the Cold War from ever getting “Hot” and producing a greater Nuclear Weapons utilization right through our current days.)



Perhaps God saw that, in the scheduled remaining time of the GC and given the state of destruction now, there quite foreseeable would not be a need for such a destruction again, which was probably all due to the combination of man then living hundreds of years and also have a relatively quite easeful and comfortable life and readily abundant livelihood. But with man’s life being curtailed after the Flood and life becoming much more demanding, God presciently foresaw that He would not have such a need until the GC was ended, at the Second Coming. And also, so as not to have people do His will simply out of a fear of bringing about another Flood, He expressedly removed that threat of punishment, with the threat of the Second Coming destruction not being mentioned until the time of the New Covenant. The rainbow also served to remove this fear. (Cf. PP 106.1) So man, especially “Atheistic man” was again free of any external influence to freely choose to follow God or not, or else every rain fall would produce a spurious and insincere mass repentance around the earth.

Tom says, God does not use force.
EGW agrees...

For God to use force to ‘lighten the gloomy shadows caused by Satan’s deceptive power so that the world might be brought back to Him’ is indeed contrary to His Government which is indeed based on actual “Love”. Indeed as EGW says: “This could not be done by force.” However, that God has used non-“natural” force of various adequate Earth’s elements, or even influence peoples, in order to bring about a certain, adjudged consequence for rebellious sin, -again not to compel anyone, but to execute this judgement, is copious attested throughout the Bible, both NT and OT, -with the Father, Son and through God’s Spirit.

Those two notion of Divine Force, with the first one not even being an ‘actuality’ (i.e., ‘something feasible’) should rightly, duly be kept distinct in this discussion, and not incorrectly conflated.

And who did Abraham see?

When did Jesus become "alive?" Did He truly live only 33 years?

You see, the subtle switch here is from the word "character" to "ministry," implying only those 3.5 years of Jesus' principal work while incarnate upon this earth. That is what invalidates the "inspiration" of Tom's statement, and which has no backing in Mrs. White's writings nor those of the Bible.

If you can find one single statement from Mrs. White where she says what Tom said, then I might adjust my own view on this matter. Until then, I am careful to understand what she expressly said, and not what someone else thinks she said or should have said instead.

God bless,

Green Cochoa.

Notice the context for this statement. It is in terms of "commanding." It is not in terms of what God may or may not choose to do in terms of actions against sinners who have passed the threshold of His patience.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.

You just spoke about wars, holocausts, bombings and say God just lets things happen, but now in the next breath you say capital punishment is needed?!

Would you say God made a mistake and now had to make people to work harder? How is that working out?

Ummmm. Something's not making sense here.
Capital punishment needed. But don't want people to fear me. But yet want them to fear a greater punishment.
Huh?

Would you prefer, "coerced"?

Does this mean Jesus whitewashed the inconvenient truth? That is, did he present people killing each other as being just and therefore everyone received brightness and spirituality from that flood of meaning?

Does this mean Jesus explained the killings of the Old Testament that they were right and just and that Jesus came to explain how that fit perfectly with God's character and the listeners then said, Wow, I am charmed and my heart melts into tenderness. I have an earnest desire to be next to you so I can hear how the killings were so just.

Is healing the sick in some way supporting the killings, that is showing God's true character?

And were the rulers, scribes, and elders upset because Jesus justified the killings and explained how good they were by his works? Is that why they killed Him? In what way were the leaders disagreeing with how Jesus presented God's true character of the killings?