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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: Rick H]
#137811
12/01/11 06:50 PM
12/01/11 06:50 PM
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5500+ Member
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Joined: Nov 2004
Posts: 6,154
Brazil
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Matt 8:29 ... it should be noted that the demons being cast out of the swine by Jesus Christ are not denying that their exorciser is the "Son of God," only that He is JESUS the Son of God. ... This vein of Gnosticism believed that Jesus Christ was a dualistic being, having an earthly nature (Jesus) and a heavenly nature (Christ).... Why did they remove “Jesus” in Matthew but left it in Mark and Luke? Matt 19:17 ... In this passage, usually pointed to as a proof text for the deity of Christ, we see that the wording is changed to subvert the implicit testimony of Christ to Himself as being good, and hence, God.... Why did they change it in Matthew but left it unchanged in Mark? Mark 1:1 ... The deletion of "the Son of God"... would still allow them to persist in speculations about the duality of an earthly Jesus and heavenly Christ in the alien Savior. ... Why are these words included in the supposedly “gnostic” codices Sinaiticus, Alexandrinus and Vaticanus? Luke 4:4 ... This alteration removes Luke's record that Christ referred to and relied upon the Old Testament scriptures as "the Word of God" ... Why did they remove it from Luke’s record, but left it in Matthew’s record? Luke 22:43, 44 ...The omission of these verses is suggestive of the strain of Gnosticism heavily influenced by docetism which taught that Christ did not have a physical body, but spiritual only.... Why are they included in the “gnostic” codices Sinaiticus, Alexandrinus and Vaticanus? John 1:18 ... This alteration supports the Gnostic theological view in that it removes from the text the Sonship and pre-existence of the Lord Jesus Christ ... Why so many other texts which affirm these weren’t “altered”? John 9:35 ... While this change in reading appears more or less innocent to us, to a reader in the early church familiar with Gnostic systems, the particular choice to change "God" to "Man" would bespeak a definite attempt at making the verse more acceptable to Gnosticism. How can the title “Son of Man” be more acceptable to gnosticism??? John 10:14, 15 ... The change in this passage centers about the alteration of ginwskomai upo twn emwn to ginwskousi me ta ema. ... What this essentially means is that the shift in emphasis on the knowledge of Christ is changed from being passively had "through" Christ (denoting the agency of Christ acting through the sheep because of their testimony for Him) to being actively obtained by the sheep themselves. This would seem to conflict with other Scripture such as John 6:44, John 6:65, Romans 3:11, etc. where it is taught that the knowledge of God cannot and would not be obtained by man without the aid and providence of God. ... Then why weren’t John 6:44, John 6:65 and Romans 3:11 also altered? Acts 2:30 ... This is a clear-cut example of the removal of a biblical statement concerning the literal incarnation and physical descent of Jesus Christ from David. This is in line with many Gnostic systems which viewed Christ as a purely spiritual being, an aeon emanated from the Everlasting. The reading presented in the traditional text, where Christ in the flesh is said to be in physical descend from David, would be antithetical to these speculative systems. ... Then why weren’t passages like 2 Tim 2:8 and Rom 1:3 also altered? II Corinthians 4:6 ... This omission would tend again to separate the earthly "Jesus" from the heavenly "Christ," another example of the docetic and Gnostic tendency. According to many Gnostic speculations, Christ, but not Jesus, came to bring illumination to mankind who is separated from the Everlasting Father of Light. ... Then why weren’t passages like John 8:12 and John 12:35, 36 also altered? Galatians 6:17 ... This seems a clear example of docetism on the part of the Alexandrian texts, since we see an apparent attempt to divorce the term of deity "Lord" from the "earthly Jesus." ... Then why weren’t texts like Mark 16:19, Acts 1:21, Acts 4:33, 1 Cor 11:23, 2 Cor 4:14, 1 Thess 2:15, in which the earthly Jesus is called “Lord,” not altered, too? Eph 3:9 ... The pertinent alteration in this case involves the removal of dia Ihsou Cristou (by [or through] Jesus Christ). This change essentially removes from this passage the affirmation that Jesus Christ was the agent by which Creation was brought into existence. ... Then why wasn’t this piece of information also removed from John 1:3, Heb 1:2, Col. 1:15, 16? I John 4:3 ... In Alexandrinus and Vaticanus, the clause is simply deleted. They now say that if one "denies Jesus" (without the stipulation of acknowledging His literal incarnation), they are not of God, which is something that both Gnostic and Christian would agree upon in a general sense, though the Gnostic can still freely reject the fleshly incarnation of the spiritual, heavenly Christ. ... If this is true, why didn’t they also change John 1:14? If there really had been gnostic influences, it would make no sense at all to modify just some texts and leave many other similar ones without being altered.
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: Rosangela]
#137816
12/02/11 01:55 AM
12/02/11 01:55 AM
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OP
Group: Admin Team
3000+ Member
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Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 3,245
Florida, USA
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Matt 8:29 ... it should be noted that the demons being cast out of the swine by Jesus Christ are not denying that their exorciser is the "Son of God," only that He is JESUS the Son of God. ... This vein of Gnosticism believed that Jesus Christ was a dualistic being, having an earthly nature (Jesus) and a heavenly nature (Christ).... Why did they remove “Jesus” in Matthew but left it in Mark and Luke? Matt 19:17 ... In this passage, usually pointed to as a proof text for the deity of Christ, we see that the wording is changed to subvert the implicit testimony of Christ to Himself as being good, and hence, God.... Why did they change it in Matthew but left it unchanged in Mark? Mark 1:1 ... The deletion of "the Son of God"... would still allow them to persist in speculations about the duality of an earthly Jesus and heavenly Christ in the alien Savior. ... Why are these words included in the supposedly “gnostic” codices Sinaiticus, Alexandrinus and Vaticanus? Luke 4:4 ... This alteration removes Luke's record that Christ referred to and relied upon the Old Testament scriptures as "the Word of God" ... Why did they remove it from Luke’s record, but left it in Matthew’s record? Luke 22:43, 44 ...The omission of these verses is suggestive of the strain of Gnosticism heavily influenced by docetism which taught that Christ did not have a physical body, but spiritual only.... Why are they included in the “gnostic” codices Sinaiticus, Alexandrinus and Vaticanus? John 1:18 ... This alteration supports the Gnostic theological view in that it removes from the text the Sonship and pre-existence of the Lord Jesus Christ ... Why so many other texts which affirm these weren’t “altered”? John 9:35 ... While this change in reading appears more or less innocent to us, to a reader in the early church familiar with Gnostic systems, the particular choice to change "God" to "Man" would bespeak a definite attempt at making the verse more acceptable to Gnosticism. How can the title “Son of Man” be more acceptable to gnosticism??? John 10:14, 15 ... The change in this passage centers about the alteration of ginwskomai upo twn emwn to ginwskousi me ta ema. ... What this essentially means is that the shift in emphasis on the knowledge of Christ is changed from being passively had "through" Christ (denoting the agency of Christ acting through the sheep because of their testimony for Him) to being actively obtained by the sheep themselves. This would seem to conflict with other Scripture such as John 6:44, John 6:65, Romans 3:11, etc. where it is taught that the knowledge of God cannot and would not be obtained by man without the aid and providence of God. ... Then why weren’t John 6:44, John 6:65 and Romans 3:11 also altered? Acts 2:30 ... This is a clear-cut example of the removal of a biblical statement concerning the literal incarnation and physical descent of Jesus Christ from David. This is in line with many Gnostic systems which viewed Christ as a purely spiritual being, an aeon emanated from the Everlasting. The reading presented in the traditional text, where Christ in the flesh is said to be in physical descend from David, would be antithetical to these speculative systems. ... Then why weren’t passages like 2 Tim 2:8 and Rom 1:3 also altered? II Corinthians 4:6 ... This omission would tend again to separate the earthly "Jesus" from the heavenly "Christ," another example of the docetic and Gnostic tendency. According to many Gnostic speculations, Christ, but not Jesus, came to bring illumination to mankind who is separated from the Everlasting Father of Light. ... Then why weren’t passages like John 8:12 and John 12:35, 36 also altered? Galatians 6:17 ... This seems a clear example of docetism on the part of the Alexandrian texts, since we see an apparent attempt to divorce the term of deity "Lord" from the "earthly Jesus." ... Then why weren’t texts like Mark 16:19, Acts 1:21, Acts 4:33, 1 Cor 11:23, 2 Cor 4:14, 1 Thess 2:15, in which the earthly Jesus is called “Lord,” not altered, too? Eph 3:9 ... The pertinent alteration in this case involves the removal of dia Ihsou Cristou (by [or through] Jesus Christ). This change essentially removes from this passage the affirmation that Jesus Christ was the agent by which Creation was brought into existence. ... Then why wasn’t this piece of information also removed from John 1:3, Heb 1:2, Col. 1:15, 16? I John 4:3 ... In Alexandrinus and Vaticanus, the clause is simply deleted. They now say that if one "denies Jesus" (without the stipulation of acknowledging His literal incarnation), they are not of God, which is something that both Gnostic and Christian would agree upon in a general sense, though the Gnostic can still freely reject the fleshly incarnation of the spiritual, heavenly Christ. ... If this is true, why didn’t they also change John 1:14? If there really had been gnostic influences, it would make no sense at all to modify just some texts and leave many other similar ones without being altered. I have one answer, which may shed light on it. The Sinaiticus was written by three different scribes and was corrected later by several others. Tischendorf counted 14,800 corrections in this manuscript and there was great amount of carelessness exhibited in the copying and correction. The same with the Codex Vaticanus. It was corrected by revisers in the 8th, 10th, and 15th centuries, the entire manuscript was gone over. So it seems some altered it and others may have tried to put it back or fix but its hard to be sure, all we know is many hands worked on it and for some purpose.
Last edited by Rick H; 12/02/11 01:56 AM.
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: Kevin H]
#137818
12/02/11 03:33 AM
12/02/11 03:33 AM
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SDA Active Member 2021
5500+ Member
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Joined: Apr 2008
Posts: 7,003
The Orient
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Green Cochoa: I see that there have been a number of posts since I posted my sources last night. I just want to know if you saw that post and it made it easier to understand where I'm coming from.
Basically, while I have also read information on Dr. Wilkinson on line and in articles in journals, and even was aquainted with a family where the mother had been his secretary and they were huge fans of his, however, what I said in my post came from what Graham Maxwell told a group, and what I read in the actual letters between the Whites and Dr. Wilkinson and others in his school of though in the White estate vault. And that the Brother and Sister Wilkinson of the letters you quoted was a different Wilkinson since Dr. Wilkinson would have been a baby at the time the letters you quoted from were written. First of all, the statements that I quoted from Mrs. White were not proving anything so much as disproving something. The fact is, Mrs. White never, in published writings at least, spoke critically of Benjamin Wilkinson, his works, or his ideas. She is silent on the matter. As for your statements of having seen some actual letters, that is all fine and good, but I have not seen you say what the letters said. Nor have I had the privilege of reading them for myself. Let's get one thing absolutely clear here: Ellen White could not possibly have addressed B. G. Wilkinson's book "Our Authorized Bible Vindicated." How do I know? The book was published 15 years after Mrs. White passed away. I know that Mrs. White wrote some letters about future events, but I have not heard of any that were received over a decade beyond her death. In that amount of time, many people find their ideas have evolved, matured, broadened, or balanced out. Even if Dr. Wilkinson had been criticized earlier, this would prove nothing in regard to his later views. In fact, it might serve to show that God deemed him teachable enough to send him such messages of correction. Regarding being a scholar of Biblical languages--I don't see how this has much bearing upon the topic. Dr. Wilkinson need not know anything about how the text was translated in order to understand the character of such men as Westcott and Hort who were behind the manuscript revisions. You see, the real problem of the Bible versions is not their translations. It is the revisions which took place in their "original" manuscripts prior to the translation. Anyone who studies sufficiently into the matter is qualified to report on it. To my understanding, in light of Ezekiel 3 & 33, Dr. Wilkinson may have been morally obligated to sound the alarm once he had himself seen the danger of the specious versions. Blessings, Green Cochoa.
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: Green Cochoa]
#137821
12/02/11 04:23 AM
12/02/11 04:23 AM
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SDA Active Member 2021
5500+ Member
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Joined: Apr 2008
Posts: 7,003
The Orient
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Rosangela,
Regarding the gnostic influences, I see where you are coming from. But consider this: if the changes were all made at once to the text, people would have the more clearly seen their agenda. Leaving some of it the same helps the whole to gain better acceptance, and the changes made still have an effect of undermining the truth.
Blessings,
Green Cochoa.
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: Green Cochoa]
#137822
12/02/11 07:10 AM
12/02/11 07:10 AM
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SDA Active Member 2024
Senior Member
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Joined: Nov 2004
Posts: 635
New York
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I did not say that Mrs. White criticized his book. I said that W.W. Prescott and WILIE White critized his book based on what his mom taught him about the newer versions. I ponted out that there were a group of people, one was Elder Washburn, I believe there was a Elder Watson, and there was Dr. Wilkinson, the members of this group had letters that sound very similar to each other where their beliefs were very similar to each other. Mrs. White wrote letters of counsel and criticizism to Elder Washburn and I seem to remember an Elder Watson too, and Willie wrote very similar letters with similar criticisms for similar views to Dr. Wilkinson. I said that I don't remember if Mrs. White wrote to him specifically, but that the corrispondence with Willie are incredibily similar to the writings between Mrs. White and Elder Washburn (and Watson) with Willie trying to pass on some of the same information to Wilkinson that Mrs. White tried to pass on to these other gentlemen. And also despite their dissagreements, the White's still respected these men for the work they have done for the church.
There are volumes of Mrs. White's writings that are not published. Also, even as close friends, Mrs. White and some of the others could have some very intense discussions. Mrs. White was a very close friend of Stephen Haskell, however they had very different views of how inspiration worked and they both tried very hard to convince the other to accept their view and neither succeeded. So even though she was close to people did not mean that they did not receive some strong letters from her.
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: Kevin H]
#137831
12/02/11 02:11 PM
12/02/11 02:11 PM
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SDA Active Member 2024
5500+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2008
Posts: 6,512
Midland
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Should I or anyone else be trying to figure out why K (9th c.) (and a bunch of other letters and numbers set apart by themselves) should be useful, studied, or otherwise spent time on?
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: kland]
#137832
12/02/11 02:13 PM
12/02/11 02:13 PM
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SDA Active Member 2024
5500+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2008
Posts: 6,512
Midland
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Well from memory I think the dead sea scrolls agree with the Textus Receptus as the vast majority of the Dead Sea Scrolls were simply copies of books of the Old Testament from 250-150 B.C. A copy or portion of nearly every Old Testament book was found in Qumran. There were extra-biblical and apocryphal books found as well, but again, the vast majority of the scrolls were copies of the Hebrew Old Testament.
Let's see an example. One example. And not a lengthy one. Or pick one verse and others can look at it.
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: Kevin H]
#137833
12/02/11 02:20 PM
12/02/11 02:20 PM
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SDA Active Member 2021
5500+ Member
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Joined: Apr 2008
Posts: 7,003
The Orient
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I did not say that Mrs. White criticized his book. I said that W.W. Prescott and WILIE White critized his book based on what his mom taught him about the newer versions. I ponted out that there were a group of people, one was Elder Washburn, I believe there was a Elder Watson, and there was Dr. Wilkinson, the members of this group had letters that sound very similar to each other where their beliefs were very similar to each other. Mrs. White wrote letters of counsel and criticizism to Elder Washburn and I seem to remember an Elder Watson too, and Willie wrote very similar letters with similar criticisms for similar views to Dr. Wilkinson. I said that I don't remember if Mrs. White wrote to him specifically, but that the corrispondence with Willie are incredibily similar to the writings between Mrs. White and Elder Washburn (and Watson) with Willie trying to pass on some of the same information to Wilkinson that Mrs. White tried to pass on to these other gentlemen. And also despite their dissagreements, the White's still respected these men for the work they have done for the church.
There are volumes of Mrs. White's writings that are not published. Also, even as close friends, Mrs. White and some of the others could have some very intense discussions. Mrs. White was a very close friend of Stephen Haskell, however they had very different views of how inspiration worked and they both tried very hard to convince the other to accept their view and neither succeeded. So even though she was close to people did not mean that they did not receive some strong letters from her. So to your understanding, newer is better, right? Why don't we set about to make a new one every year? Blessings, Green Cochoa.
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: Green Cochoa]
#137849
12/02/11 08:56 PM
12/02/11 08:56 PM
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OP
Group: Admin Team
3000+ Member
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Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 3,245
Florida, USA
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Rosangela,
Regarding the gnostic influences, I see where you are coming from. But consider this: if the changes were all made at once to the text, people would have the more clearly seen their agenda. Leaving some of it the same helps the whole to gain better acceptance, and the changes made still have an effect of undermining the truth.
Blessings,
Green Cochoa. This is also the same tatic Wescott and Hort used bringing in the text from the Alexandrian codices with the revison commitee, just a small change asked for, one word here one word there, a ommission or a different one inserted. But fearing a backlash they dared not come out openly with their changes. So it was death by a thousand small cuts and alterations....
Last edited by Rick H; 12/02/11 08:58 PM.
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