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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: Green Cochoa]
#138302
12/21/11 03:56 PM
12/21/11 03:56 PM
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FORMER-SDA Active Member 2018 Banned
Senior Member
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Joined: Dec 2009
Posts: 663
Canada
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Yes, Arnold, the root issue is one of manuscripts. If the root of the issue is one of manuscripts, it must be demonstrated that one family of manuscripts is inferior to another, based on some criteria. This has not been done. What is the evidence that the Alexandrian family is corrupt and Byzantine family trustworthy? By what standard are you measuring each group? By comparing to each other? By comparing to an outside standard? If comparing to each other, the families are just different, not "good" or "bad". If comparing to an outside authority, what is that authority? That "authority" then becomes the "Official Word of God". Whatever it is cannot be the KJV, because the KJV was produced from one of the families, and that becomes circular reasoning.
"All that is Gold does not Glitter, Not all who Wander are Lost." (J.R.R.T.)
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: Rick H]
#138347
12/23/11 08:04 PM
12/23/11 08:04 PM
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SDA Active Member 2023
5500+ Member
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Joined: Feb 2006
Posts: 5,640
California, USA
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I just remembered this from the KJV. Ephesians 2:1 And you hath he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins; It adds "hath he quickened," which is not in the manuscripts. Does that count as adding to God's word?
By God's grace, Arnold
1 John 5:11-13 And this is the testimony, that God gave us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. Whoever has the Son has life; whoever does not have the Son of God does not have life. I write these things to you who believe in the name of the Son of God, that you may know that you have eternal life.
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: JAK]
#138353
12/24/11 06:09 AM
12/24/11 06:09 AM
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SDA Active Member 2021
5500+ Member
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Joined: Apr 2008
Posts: 7,003
The Orient
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Yes, Arnold, the root issue is one of manuscripts. If the root of the issue is one of manuscripts, it must be demonstrated that one family of manuscripts is inferior to another, based on some criteria. This has not been done. What is the evidence that the Alexandrian family is corrupt and Byzantine family trustworthy? By what standard are you measuring each group? By comparing to each other? By comparing to an outside standard? If comparing to each other, the families are just different, not "good" or "bad". If comparing to an outside authority, what is that authority? That "authority" then becomes the "Official Word of God". Whatever it is cannot be the KJV, because the KJV was produced from one of the families, and that becomes circular reasoning. I don't think there is a special need to compare one line of manuscripts against another to know which of them is superior. However, I think that a simple comparison of them does indeed lead us to a knowledge of the truth on the matter. For those who wish to think it would be circular logic to do so, let me present the option via an allegory. A man by the name of Benjamin Wolff goes seeking for the most authentic clock, trying to find the most original measure of time. He has heard rumors of time having changed over the years, and wishes to lay such theories to rest. Knowing that many good and famous clocks were made in Switzerland, he travels to Switzerland and visits numerous clock shops. Some naysayers have touted claims that time has been changed, and that the modern minute is no longer equal to the minute used in times past. To settle the matter, Benjamin assays to compare several thousand of the world's finest antiques, and he checks their measurement of time against a finely-calibrated modern atomic clock. Imagine his surprise to find that there was some truth in the naysayers' arguments! In fact, as he studies, he finds one particular small line of clocks whose minutes deviated from the modern measure so that they were more than a second longer than 60 seconds! All other clocks in Switzerland, France, and Europe which Benjamin timed were within a tenth of a second of the standard time--with the vast majority of those deviating less than two-hundredths of a second per minute. To solve the conundrum, Benjamin has just a few facts to go on, for the clocks, along with the shops from which they came, date back beyond any living memory or record. Here are the facts: 1) The clocks which are all timed within a couple hundredths of a second of the modern minute are in the majority. In fact, over 95% of all clocks are of this line. 2) The line of clocks with the longer minute, apart from being fewer in number, are also less widespread in origin, and seem to originate from one of about three major places, all of which may have been associated at an earlier point in time. 3) The standard-minute clocks have been considered the standard by many people in all walks of life for centuries, and are frequently referenced in government documents, private letters, and other ancient records--all of which agree with the modern time. Who has the "original" time? If Benjamin had but two watches on his wrist, both of which differed from the other, would he have any way of knowing which of the two were more accurate? Of course not. But suppose Benjamin had three watches on his person, two of which agreed while the third differed...which time would he trust? Would he not trust the two which showed the same time? Now, in the case that there are 20 clocks, and only one is different while 19 all show the identical same time--which time would a wise person trust? That is exactly the situation with the Bible manuscripts. The "Majority Text" is a subset of all known copies of the Bible manuscripts comprising about 95% of them. Only 1 in 20 manuscripts differs, and is part of the Alexandrian text, or "Neutral Text" as it was christened by Westcott and Hort-- after they had edited and revised the original copies. Blessings, Green Cochoa.
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: asygo]
#138354
12/24/11 06:15 AM
12/24/11 06:15 AM
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SDA Active Member 2021
5500+ Member
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Joined: Apr 2008
Posts: 7,003
The Orient
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I just remembered this from the KJV. Ephesians 2:1 And you hath he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins; It adds "hath he quickened," which is not in the manuscripts. Does that count as adding to God's word? Arnold, In this particular case, it may be that some of the original manuscript was beyond legibility and the translators added the words in order to harmonize with the rest of scripture. There are a few other places where the KJV translators have done this. Here is the text which they likely used to fill in the blanks: And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses; (Colossians 2:13) Blessings, Green Cochoa.
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: Rosangela]
#138390
12/27/11 06:30 AM
12/27/11 06:30 AM
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OP
Group: Admin Team
3000+ Member
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Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 3,245
Florida, USA
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GC,
There is no KJV here in Brazil, our main version is not based on the Textus Receptus, we are using it in the translation of the SDABC, and I see no evidence that any of our doctrines was perverted by it. We have no doctrines based on isolate words or passages. Rosangela, I asked my wife and she said the Bible version in most Spanish countries is the 'Reina Valera', which is the KJV for all intents and purposes. Is that also the case in your churches?
Last edited by Rick H; 12/27/11 06:32 AM.
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: Rick H]
#138391
12/27/11 07:36 AM
12/27/11 07:36 AM
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OP
Group: Admin Team
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Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 3,245
Florida, USA
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Here is a good study I came across on this issue.... http://themoorings.org/doctrine/issues/versions/CT.htmlI also came across a list of some the versions that published using the Alexandrian Codices or the Hort-Westcott - Critical Text: Greisbach, Johann - 1805 Lachmann, Karl - 1842 Tischendorf, Constantine - 1869 Tregelles, Samuel - 1857 Alford, Henry - 1849 revised in 1871 Westcott and Hort - 1881 Weiss, Bernhard - 1894 Nestle - 1927 as revised in seventeenth edition in 1941 Nestle-Aland - 1979 - Twenty Sixth Edition Nestle-Aland - 1993 - Twenty Seventh Edition United Bible Societies - 1983 - Fourth Edition Von Soden, Freiherr - 1902 Here is a good site which shows the versions... http://www.skypoint.com/members/waltzmn/CriticalEds.html
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: Green Cochoa]
#138398
12/27/11 03:54 PM
12/27/11 03:54 PM
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SDA Active Member 2024
5500+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2008
Posts: 6,515
Midland
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For those who wish to think it would be circular logic to do so, let me present the option via an allegory.... Some naysayers have touted claims that time has been changed, and that the modern minute is no longer equal to the minute used in times past. To settle the matter, Benjamin assays to compare several thousand of the world's finest antiques, and he checks their measurement of time against a finely-calibrated modern atomic clock.... 1) The clocks which are all timed within a couple hundredths of a second of the modern minute are in the majority. In fact, over 95% of all clocks are of this line.
How do we know the modern atomic clock is correct? Where does it get it's basis? Isn't it from an arbitrary time? (Preciseness doesn't mean correct) Except in your case, you have circularly picked a clock you like, found some in the past which agree with you, and therefore conclude it is "correct". Perhaps this is another case where one of your analogies has broken down again.
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: kland]
#138400
12/27/11 03:57 PM
12/27/11 03:57 PM
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SDA Active Member 2021
5500+ Member
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Joined: Apr 2008
Posts: 7,003
The Orient
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For those who wish to think it would be circular logic to do so, let me present the option via an allegory.... Some naysayers have touted claims that time has been changed, and that the modern minute is no longer equal to the minute used in times past. To settle the matter, Benjamin assays to compare several thousand of the world's finest antiques, and he checks their measurement of time against a finely-calibrated modern atomic clock.... 1) The clocks which are all timed within a couple hundredths of a second of the modern minute are in the majority. In fact, over 95% of all clocks are of this line.
How do we know the modern atomic clock is correct? Where does it get it's basis? Isn't it from an arbitrary time? (Preciseness doesn't mean correct) Except in your case, you have circularly picked a clock you like, found some in the past which agree with you, and therefore conclude it is "correct". Perhaps this is another case where one of your analogies has broken down again. In my example, it doesn't matter whether or not the atomic clock is correct. What matters is that it can be a consistent measure of time used to compare the other clocks. In my example, the other clocks would be considered the source of the "correct" time--only, which ones? The atomic clock would accurately compare the differences, don't you think? Blessings, Green Cochoa.
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: Green Cochoa]
#138424
12/28/11 02:59 PM
12/28/11 02:59 PM
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SDA Active Member 2024
5500+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2008
Posts: 6,515
Midland
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"In my example, it doesn't matter whether or not the atomic clock is correct."
I'd agree with that statement based upon how it relates (or doesn't) to the Bible versions.
No matter how many different words you use, you are still saying, more is better.
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Re: Why the King James Version is Superior...
[Re: kland]
#138425
12/28/11 03:07 PM
12/28/11 03:07 PM
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SDA Active Member 2021
5500+ Member
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Joined: Apr 2008
Posts: 7,003
The Orient
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"In my example, it doesn't matter whether or not the atomic clock is correct."
I'd agree with that statement based upon how it relates (or doesn't) to the Bible versions.
No matter how many different words you use, you are still saying, more is better. Perhaps you haven't understood the argument. Perhaps you are one who would prefer to believe the time on the one clock that was different, and ignore the 19 clocks which all read the same. Blessings, Green Cochoa.
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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