Forums118
Topics9,232
Posts196,215
Members1,326
|
Most Online5,850 Feb 29th, 2020
|
|
S |
M |
T |
W |
T |
F |
S |
|
|
|
|
|
1
|
2
|
3
|
4
|
5
|
6
|
7
|
8
|
9
|
10
|
11
|
12
|
13
|
14
|
15
|
16
|
17
|
18
|
19
|
20
|
21
|
22
|
23
|
24
|
25
|
26
|
27
|
28
|
29
|
30
|
|
Here is a link to show exactly where the Space Station is over earth right now: Click Here
|
|
7 registered members (Karen Y, dedication, Daryl, daylily, TheophilusOne, 2 invisible),
2,482
guests, and 13
spiders. |
Key:
Admin,
Global Mod,
Mod
|
|
|
Here is the link to this week's Sabbath School Lesson Study and Discussion Material: Click Here
|
|
Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants
[Re: Mountain Man]
#138401
12/27/11 04:09 PM
12/27/11 04:09 PM
|
SDA Active Member 2021
5500+ Member
|
Joined: Apr 2008
Posts: 7,003
The Orient
|
|
M: The blemished offering was, in context, evil and cursed. That's why offering it was a sin.
GC: As he believes the lamb with a blemish was "evil," and this would have resulted in "sin" for it to be offered, it stands to reason that if Jesus were in any way blemished, that He would also be "evil" and it would have been sin for Him to be offered in sacrifice for us. I'm curious how Mike will explain this apparent dichotomy. Blemished offerings were not inherently evil or cursed. But in the context of the temple services they were considered evil and cursed. Jesus did not incur evil and cursed status when He took upon Himself sinful flesh nature. Neither are born-again believers considered evil and cursed because they retain sinful flesh nature. It is not a sin to have sinful flesh nature. Yes, sinful flesh nature is sinful. In this context, however, sinful and sinning are two different realities. Sinful flesh nature cannot sin. It can only tempt us to sin. If we do not act out its unholy desires we do not incur guilt or condemnation. Wow, your theology is sure different than I've ever heard. It sounds to me like you are saying that Jesus' sacrifice on the cross was evil and cursed because He was a blemished lamb, having sinful flesh. Is that what you are saying? I always understood that Jesus became a curse for us because of the text in Deuteronomy which says: And if a man have committed a sin worthy of death, and he be to be put to death, and thou hang him on a tree: His body shall not remain all night upon the tree, but thou shalt in any wise bury him that day; (for he that is hanged is accursed of God;) that thy land be not defiled, which the LORD thy God giveth thee for an inheritance. (Deuteronomy 21:22-23 I've also understood that Jesus became a curse for us becuase He took our sins upon Himself. Our blood was upon Him, just as the blood was placed upon the head of the lamb. The blood didn't make the lamb blemished, but I supposed it could have made the lamb cursed. Blessings, Green Cochoa.
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
|
Reply
Quote
|
|
|
Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants
[Re: Green Cochoa]
#138406
12/27/11 07:28 PM
12/27/11 07:28 PM
|
Active Member 2012
Very Dedicated Member
|
Joined: Nov 2005
Posts: 1,826
E. Oregon, USA
|
|
Careful, now: let's not get lost in the detail. Jesus was made a curse for us, and not just because he was hanged on a tree: God the Father imputed that curse and imposed between them the barrier of divine wrath against sin. (Whether this separation of Father and Son in judgement of sin for us is possible under the trinity doctrine, that Jesus could die as man only but not as God, is being discussed on the trinity thread, now. ) Really, there are several layers of detail about righteousness and sin in the incarnation and substitution of Jesus for us. Jesus taking our sinful nature doesn't make him corrupt, since "not for a moment did corruption rest on him". The rule is not: we sin because we're sinners; we're sinners because we sin. The rule is, correctly: we sin because we're sinful; we're sinners because we sin. Therefore, we have freedom of choice, by the grace and power of God, to choose righteousness at any and every moment, since we are by nature sinful and not sinners. Jesus brought no personal condemnation on himself by his behaviour: sinful flesh is in itself condemned, but by itself, as MM says, it cannot condemn us - we do that all by ourselves. Thus, both we need a Saviour and Jesus qualified to be Saviour of the world by refusing the sinfulness of his adopted, sinful humanity, producing the character of the blameless Lamb of God. Any clearer, now?
|
Reply
Quote
|
|
|
Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants
[Re: Mountain Man]
#138412
12/27/11 09:48 PM
12/27/11 09:48 PM
|
SDA Active Member 2021
5500+ Member
|
Joined: Apr 2008
Posts: 7,003
The Orient
|
|
Jesus was not blemished. Taking sinful flesh nature upon His divine nature did not cause corruption or contamination. He bore the sins of the world in His sinful flesh nature. He did not bare it in His divine nature. This is where we may divide. Jesus had sin-degenerated flesh. Jesus had flesh. He took upon himself our flesh, including its aches, pains and weaknesses. However, he had not one single propensity toward sin. The word "propensity" is synonymous with "inclination." What does the pen of inspiration tell us? (Ch. 14:30; Luke 1:31-35; 1 Corinthians 15:22, 45; Hebrews 4:15.) Be careful, exceedingly careful as to how you dwell upon the human nature of Christ. Do not set Him before the people as a man with the propensities of sin. He is the second Adam. The first Adam was created a pure, sinless being, without a taint of sin upon him; he was in the image of God. He could fall, and he did fall through transgressing. Because of sin his posterity was born with inherent propensities of disobedience. But Jesus Christ was the only begotten Son of God. He took upon Himself human nature, and was tempted in all points as human nature is tempted. He could have sinned; He could have fallen, but not for one moment was there in Him an evil propensity. He was assailed with temptations in the wilderness, as Adam was assailed with temptations in Eden. {5BC 1128.4} Notice that Mrs. White says "human nature" but does not here say "sinful nature." And here's an interesting statement that implies with a sinful nature, perfection would be impossible: After the fall, it had been impossible for man with his sinful nature to render obedience to the law of God, had not Christ, by the offer of his own life, purchased the right to lift up the race where they could once more work in harmony with its requirements. {RH, September 27, 1881 par. 11} In light of the above statements, the "knife edge" of the paradox seems to be included in the following: Clad in the vestments of humanity, the Son of God came down to the level of those he wished to save. In him was no guile or sinfulness; he was ever pure and undefiled; yet he took upon him our sinful nature. Clothing his divinity with humanity, that he might associate with fallen humanity, he sought to redeem for man that which by disobedience Adam had lost, for himself and for the world. In his own character Jesus manifested to the world the character of God; he pleased not himself, but went about doing good. His whole history, for more than thirty years, was of pure, disinterested benevolence. {RH, August 22, 1907 par. 1} To me, that implies that having a "sinful nature" must be separate from the concepts of being a "sinner" or even of having "propensities" to sin. It appears that "sinful nature" means something different than we have traditionally thought. Blessings, Green Cochoa.
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
|
Reply
Quote
|
|
|
Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants
[Re: Mountain Man]
#138456
12/29/11 02:57 PM
12/29/11 02:57 PM
|
Active Member 2012
Very Dedicated Member
|
Joined: Nov 2005
Posts: 1,826
E. Oregon, USA
|
|
Amen to that. Like newborn believers, Jesus also partook of "the divine nature" and "escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust . . . the sin that dwelleth in me . . . that is, in my flesh". "It is the privilege of every believer in Christ to possess Christ's nature, a nature far above that which Adam forfeited by transgression." {UL 18.3} Newborn believers are recreated with a new and superior nature and they are, consequently, enabled and empowered to experience "righteousness and true holiness" like Jesus did. Possessing sinful flesh nature, therefore, in no way hinders or prevents growth in grace, nor does it stop believers from "perfecting holiness" "more and more unto the perfect day".
|
Reply
Quote
|
|
|
Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants
[Re: Green Cochoa]
#138457
12/29/11 03:27 PM
12/29/11 03:27 PM
|
Active Member 2012
Very Dedicated Member
|
Joined: Nov 2005
Posts: 1,826
E. Oregon, USA
|
|
I really hope this thread doesn't stretch to 100 pages as it has in the past, among others here. Jesus was not blemished. Taking sinful flesh nature upon His divine nature did not cause corruption or contamination. He bore the sins of the world in His sinful flesh nature. He did not bare it in His divine nature. This is where we may divide. Jesus had sin-degenerated flesh. Jesus had flesh. He took upon himself our flesh, including its aches, pains and weaknesses. However, he had not one single propensity toward sin. The word "propensity" is synonymous with "inclination." Synonymous???! Nope: propensity means habits built up from practice; inclination means basic sinfulness. Hereditary propensity (below) means the habits of one's ancesters. "In him...was not for one moment...an evil propensity": that means he never practised the sin burdening his adopted, sinful human nature. We know this from what else she wrote, and the Bible in totality teaches. What does the pen of inspiration tell us? (Ch. 14:30; Luke 1:31-35; 1 Corinthians 15:22, 45; Hebrews 4:15.) Be careful, exceedingly careful as to how you dwell upon the human nature of Christ. Do not set Him before the people as a man with the propensities of sin. He is the second Adam. The first Adam was created a pure, sinless being, without a taint of sin upon him; he was in the image of God. He could fall, and he did fall through transgressing. Because of sin his posterity was born with inherent propensities of disobedience. But Jesus Christ was the only begotten Son of God. He took upon Himself human nature, and was tempted in all points as human nature is tempted. He could have sinned; He could have fallen, but not for one moment was there in Him an evil propensity. He was assailed with temptations in the wilderness, as Adam was assailed with temptations in Eden. {5BC 1128.4} That human nature is degenerate means it is morally weak and unable with God's intervening help at our request to break away from sin and do God's will righteously by faith. [quote]In light of the above statements, the "knife edge" of the paradox seems to be included in the following: Clad in the vestments of humanity, the Son of God came down to the level of those he wished to save. In him was no guile or sinfulness; he was ever pure and undefiled; yet he took upon him our sinful nature. Clothing his divinity with humanity, that he might associate with fallen humanity, he sought to redeem for man that which by disobedience Adam had lost, for himself and for the world. In his own character Jesus manifested to the world the character of God; he pleased not himself, but went about doing good. His whole history, for more than thirty years, was of pure, disinterested benevolence. {RH, August 22, 1907 par. 1} To me, that implies that having a "sinful nature" must be separate from the concepts of being a "sinner" or even of having "propensities" to sin. It appears that "sinful nature" means something different than we have traditionally thought. Blessings, Green Cochoa. Indeed, since we sin because we're sinful - not, 'we sin because we're sinners'! - the difference between being sinful and sinning, for us, is personal choice, not semantics. Propensities result from inclinations that are acted upon rather than rejected. Therefore, righteousness by faith is truly pragmatic: shall we choose to be like Jesus in our thoughts and deeds, or shall we struggle by ourselves - and fail to be good all by ourselves, or think we cannot mirror/reflect Jesus perfectly, day by day in more and more ways, in this life as grace cannot enable that in us even though we believe? "The faith of Jesus" is a correct translation for Gal 2:20 and Rev 14:12, since that is the very spiritual tool by which we can follow Jesus to the uttermost, whithersoever he leads us.
|
Reply
Quote
|
|
|
Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants
[Re: Colin]
#138458
12/29/11 04:00 PM
12/29/11 04:00 PM
|
SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
|
Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
|
|
Therefore, righteousness by faith is truly pragmatic: shall we choose to be like Jesus in our thoughts and deeds, or shall we struggle by ourselves - and fail to be good all by ourselves, or think we cannot mirror/reflect Jesus perfectly, day by day in more and more ways, in this life as grace cannot enable that in us even though we believe? "Shall we choose to be like Jesus in our thoughts and deeds"? Yes! "Shall we struggle by ourselves - and fail to be good all by ourselves"? God forbid! "Shall think we cannot mirror/reflect Jesus perfectly, day by day in more and more ways, in this life?" Certainly not! "Shall we think grace cannot enable that in us even though we believe?" No way!
|
Reply
Quote
|
|
|
Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants
[Re: Colin]
#138460
12/29/11 04:26 PM
12/29/11 04:26 PM
|
OP
SDA Active Member 2023
5500+ Member
|
Joined: Feb 2006
Posts: 5,636
California, USA
|
|
This thread is moving faster than I can keep up with. But I'll try to catch up. The word "propensity" is synonymous with "inclination." Synonymous???! Nope: propensity means habits built up from practice; inclination means basic sinfulness. Hereditary propensity (below) means the habits of one's ancesters. Propensity does not mean habits. Even in your own explanation, that wouldn't make sense. It is possible for one to gain inclinations from the habits of his ancestors. But how can he gain his ancestor's habits through heredity? Habits, by definition, are actions, and therefore cannot be passed on. But don't take my word for it. Here's a quote from the 1828 Webster's dictionary, just a few years before EGW's ministry: PROPENSE, a. propens'. [L. propensus.] Leaning towards, in a moral sense; inclined; disposed, either to good or evil; as women propense to holiness.
PROPENSION, PROPENSITY, n. [L. propensio.] 1. Bent of mind, natural or acquired; inclination; in a moral sense; disposition to any thing good or evil, particularly to evil; as a propensity to sin; the corrupt propensity of the will. 2. Natural tendency; as the propension of bodies to a particular place. Notice that there is no mention of habits, or even actions. The meaning of propensity is inclination or tendency. The impetus to change the meaning of propensity is seen below. "In him...was not for one moment...an evil propensity": that means he never practised the sin burdening his adopted, sinful human nature. Now that we know what propensity means, and more importantly, what it meant in EGW's time, we can understand this better. True, Jesus never practiced sin. But His holiness runs much deeper than many people think. More than refraining from acts of sin, Jesus did not have the propensity, or inclination, to sin. IOW, not only did He abstain from sin in His thoughts, words, and actions, He did not have even the stain of sin in his passions and desires. Why are so many people so adamant that Jesus was selfish inwardly? One reason is that they want to excuse their own inward selfishness. They might be able to keep their bodies from sinning, but they know that their thoughts and feelings are undeniably selfish. And since their assurance of salvation is grounded in replicating Christ's experience, they must bring Him down to their level of stunted holiness so that they can say, "Jesus was like us, so we must be OK." But the fact is that Jesus was more holy than us. We who are selfish can only copy the Pattern, but we will never equal it. Our assurance is not in replicating His righteousness, but in accepting it as a gift. We cannot offer to God the filthy rags of our sinful humanity, so we must rely on Christ's sinlessness.
By God's grace, Arnold
1 John 5:11-13 And this is the testimony, that God gave us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. Whoever has the Son has life; whoever does not have the Son of God does not have life. I write these things to you who believe in the name of the Son of God, that you may know that you have eternal life.
|
Reply
Quote
|
|
|
|
|