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Re: The truth about the KJV only argument [Re: Rick H] #145784
10/06/12 11:06 PM
10/06/12 11:06 PM
Johann  Offline
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Active Member 2014

Retired Pastor
3000+ Member
Joined: Jul 2006
Posts: 3,014
Iceland
What you are saying about Westcort and Hort is a good warning. The only New Testament I have seen which is based on their text is the one published by the Watch Tower. Perhaps there are others?


"Here is a last piece of advice. If you believe in goodness and if you value the approval of God, fix your minds on the things which are holy and right and pure and beautiful and good. Model your conduct on what you have learned from me, on what I have told you and shown you, and you will find the God of peace will be with you."
Re: The truth about the KJV only argument [Re: Rick H] #145821
10/08/12 04:41 PM
10/08/12 04:41 PM
K
kland  Offline
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Joined: Oct 2008
Posts: 6,475
Midland
Originally Posted By: Rick H

1 John 5:7
Removal of the Trinity
(King James Version)
For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost:and these three are one.
(Revised Standard Version)
For there are three that testify the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost---
NIV(New International Version)
( missing )
Rick, what do you say - should a translator be "ready to sacrifice the choicest text, and the plainest proof of doctrine, if the words are not those of what he is constrained in his conscience to receive as God’s testimony"?



Quote:

If you go to the Textus Receptus it is very hard to change the meaning with so many copies, 5000+ Greek manuscripts in existence. This ensures the integrity of the words and meaning, but if you use the Alexandrian/Minority Texts which is a few copies which have gnostic influences and other corruptions, then you are looking for trouble.

And more and more modern Bible versions are picking this corrupted texts, most modern English Bible versions are translated from Greek new Testament texts (Hort/Westcott -- Nestle/Aland etc...) based on primarily the Alexandrian text coming basically from two sources-- the Vaticanus and Sinaiticus.
If I copy my post 5,000 times and you only copy yours once, does that mean I'm right?
More is not necessarily better.

Quote:
The Greek text used by these editors was vastly inferior to that of modern translations. It was principally the Stephanus text of 1550 (third edition), which, in turn, relied essentially on Erasmus’ third edition of 1522. The Stephanus text was modified slightly by Theodore Beza who took the text through eleven editions.3 Beza’s 9th edition was used in preparation for the KJV. This Greek text, later known as the Textus Receptus (TR), misses the wording of the original New Testament in about 5000 places. Most of these places cannot be translated, but a few of them are fairly substantial. Once again, all of these Greek texts—from Erasmus to Beza—are essentially the same. They are all essentially the third edition of Erasmus.

To understand the history of the English Bible you have to know a little about the Greek text that stands behind it. Here are some of the facts about Erasmus’ Greek text.
...
4. Because he was in a rush, he could find only one copy of the book of Revelation. And that copy lacked the last leaf, Rev 22.16-21. What was Erasmus to do? He decided to backtranslate those final six verses, from Latin into Greek.
http://bible.org/seriespage/part-iii-kjv-rv-elegance-accuracy

Re: The truth about the KJV only argument [Re: kland] #145823
10/08/12 07:39 PM
10/08/12 07:39 PM
APL  Offline
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Posts: 6,368
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Kland - do not neglect to consider, that bible.org is pushing the NET. "we are bible.org", obviously, the NET is superior to the KJV, right?

Oh - and you copy and paste analogy, does not match the issue of extant copies of the Bible. Copies that come from various places, not a single place as you analogy is trying to claim.

And note - "older" does not necessarily mean better.


Oh, that men might open their minds to know God as he is revealed in his Son! {ST, January 20, 1890}
Re: The truth about the KJV only argument [Re: APL] #145850
10/10/12 03:05 PM
10/10/12 03:05 PM
K
kland  Offline
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Joined: Oct 2008
Posts: 6,475
Midland
APL, could you show where it says that the NET is superior to the KJV?

Your next statement indicates to me you did not read bible.org article nor the quotes I listed.

So do you say more means better? Or should we say all versions, including the KJV are "better"?

Re: The truth about the KJV only argument [Re: Johann] #145902
10/13/12 10:44 AM
10/13/12 10:44 AM
Rick H  Offline

Group: Admin Team
3000+ Member
Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 3,203
Florida, USA
Originally Posted By: Johann
What you are saying about Westcort and Hort is a good warning. The only New Testament I have seen which is based on their text is the one published by the Watch Tower. Perhaps there are others?
They early on picked up the versions that take out Jesus divinity and you can see the results. Thus the danger inherent in these corrupted text.

Re: The truth about the KJV only argument [Re: Rick H] #145993
10/18/12 01:30 PM
10/18/12 01:30 PM
K
kland  Offline
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Active Member 2024

5500+ Member
Joined: Oct 2008
Posts: 6,475
Midland
Rick and APL and others,

Do you intend, or otherwise if it were possible, to restrict or otherwise limit the access of other versions from those of us who see the arguments against as being manipulative and wish to have access to them? If not, you are free to have your own opinion as long as you do not in any way use force of church or state or combine such forces as they did for 270 some years in the past by "authorizing" only the KJV and prohibiting other versions.

Re: The truth about the KJV only argument [Re: kland] #145998
10/18/12 06:56 PM
10/18/12 06:56 PM
jamesonofthunder  Offline
Banned
SDA
Active Member 2015

3500+ Member
Joined: Jan 2012
Posts: 3,613
USA
Excellent point Brother Kland


Search me oh God and know my heart, test me and know my anxious thoughts, see if there is any offensive way in me and lead me to the way everlasting. Amen
Re: The truth about the KJV only argument [Re: jamesonofthunder] #146073
10/20/12 07:44 PM
10/20/12 07:44 PM
Alpendave  Offline
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Full Member
Joined: Oct 2003
Posts: 178
Deer Park, WA
The so-called Majority Text has has not always been in the majority.

The argument about The New World Translation utilizing Westcott and Hort's Greek text is not all that useful given the fact that it (The NWT) grossly twists both the Hebrew and Greek underlying it. Regarding the doctrine of the deity of Christ, the KJV translators were unaware of what is today called the Granville Sharp's rule and thus came up with an inadequate translation of Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1.

It's been my observation that those who oppose the use of modern translations do so because they have the KJV figured out well enough to use it to impose their prescriptions and proscriptions on others, thus bolstering their own sanctimonious theological influence on their fellow believers. Many KJV-only advocates have invested so much pride into taking hardline stances on certain theological nuances in our denomination that it is nearly impossible for them to backtrack to a more balanced position. The KJV mistranslation of Hebrews 2:16 and its christological implications is a good example.

At any rate, while people become absorbed in polemics, they more often than not lose site of real life and the world around them. Self has a way of convincing us that so long as we pursue the minutia of theology that we are somehow doing God's work on earth. It's a delusion that causes people to become fanatics, convinced that everything in the church with which they disagree is somehow part of a vast Jesuit conspiracy or some other form of apostasy with clandestine origins.

Last edited by Dave Mullbock; 10/20/12 07:45 PM.
Re: The truth about the KJV only argument [Re: Rick H] #146074
10/20/12 08:02 PM
10/20/12 08:02 PM
Alpendave  Offline
Banned Member
Full Member
Joined: Oct 2003
Posts: 178
Deer Park, WA
Quote:
"We see that at the beginning of all things God Himself, making all things. He is not the earth, or the heavens, or anything that is therein: He is distinct from them all: He made them all: He was before them all. He made them according to a plan and order. Each part of the world had its own work to do, its own place in His great scheme. Last of all came man. The world was older than man, it supplied the materials for man: man was part of the world, and was meant to remember that. On the other hand, there was that in man which cold be found nowhere else in the world. If he mere clay was kneaded of the dust of the earth, the pattern was a heavenly one. His truest likeness was to be found in God Himself. Though he was younger than the world, he was to be the first example of that which meets us so often in the Bible, and in our own life. The elder was to serve the younger. God gave man dominion over the older world, and all that it contained. It was not only to be beautiful and glorious for the delight of its Maker, it was to be useful for the service of man. But here came a most necessary lesson. God pronounced the whole world Good. In the course of time man in his pride would look down on the world. Nay worse, when he became evil himself, he would lay blame on the world. He would pretend that the only thing which made him sin was his connexion with the earth, his own body, and all the things which had charms for his bodily senses." (Hort, Sermons on the Books of the Bible, p.28-29)



Interesting that near the end of the quote, Hort is refuting the dualistic philosophy of Gnositicism, the KJV-only advocates criticize him for utilizing a Gnostic Greek text.

More quotes from Westcott and Hort pertaining to creation can be found here. For information pertaining to other quotes go http://www.westcotthort.com/faqs.html

Last edited by Daryl F; 10/20/12 08:46 PM. Reason: Editec to get the 2nd URL to work.
Re: The truth about the KJV only argument [Re: Alpendave] #146097
10/21/12 12:44 AM
10/21/12 12:44 AM
Alpendave  Offline
Banned Member
Full Member
Joined: Oct 2003
Posts: 178
Deer Park, WA
Here is an interesting article regarding the meaning of Mark 7:19.

Interesting to note, the passage begins with the disciples eating BREAD and not one of the forbidden flesh meats. Hence, the statement as reads in the modern versions does not contextually allow the understanding that the word bromata (foods) to refer to forbidden flesh foods. The English word meats in KJV English meant food in general and not necessarily flesh like it does in contemporary English. If the modern versions were trying to imply that pork is the new chicken, they would not have changed the English word meats to foods to comply with modern usage.

Additionally, one of the main issues drawn out is the conflict between obedience to the scripturally revealed will of God (His law) vs. regulations fabricated by man. Since the flesh food laws were given by inspiration, to contrast them with the commandment to honor one's parents would be to put God's law against itself. Rather, it is God's law (inclusive of the flesh food laws) vs. human tradition. Interestingly, when people argue that the flesh food laws no longer apply, they do so under the assumption that it is because they have been nailed to the cross. Yet Jesus declaration that all foods are clean takes place before the cross. Therefore, His declaration, at that time, can only mean that foods cannot be considered to be unclean by virtue of the fact that they are consumed with disregard to human mandated ritual purification. Simply put, the intent of Jesus teaching was to nullify human requirements while leaving the divine requirements fully intact. The modern rendering is a much more forceful indictment against human tradition than the KJV one. With the KJV, the foods may be unclean going in, but as Green Cochoa seem to suggest, purged out by the g.i. tract. The modern versions make it clear that the foods, having been consumed without rabbinic protocol, were yet clean before consumption.

Last edited by Dave Mullbock; 10/21/12 12:49 AM.
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