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Re: Did Christ have sinful tendencies? How does EGW use the word propensities? [Re: APL] #159332
12/18/13 04:35 AM
12/18/13 04:35 AM
jamesonofthunder  Offline
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"Now the perfect harmony of heaven was broken. Lucifer’s disposition to serve himself instead of his Creator aroused a feeling of apprehension when observed by those who considered that the glory of God should be supreme. In heavenly council the angels pleaded with Lucifer. The Son of God presented before him the greatness, the goodness, and the justice of the Creator, and the sacred, unchanging nature of His law. God Himself had established the order of heaven; and in departing from it, Lucifer would dishonor his Maker and bring ruin upon himself. But the warning, given in infinite love and mercy, only aroused a spirit of resistance. Lucifer allowed his jealousy of Christ to prevail, and became the more determined. {PP 35.3}

"The angels joyfully acknowledged the supremacy of Christ, and prostrating themselves before Him, poured out their love and adoration. Lucifer bowed with them, but in his heart there was a strange, fierce conflict. Truth, justice, and loyalty were struggling against envy and jealousy (covetiousness). The influence of the holy angels seemed for a time to carry him with them. As songs of praise ascended in melodious strains, swelled by thousands of glad voices, the spirit of evil seemed vanquished; unutterable love thrilled his entire being; his soul went out, in harmony with the sinless worshippers, in love to the Father and the Son. But again he was filled with pride in his own glory. His desire for supremacy returned, and envy of Christ was once more indulged. The high honors conferred upon Lucifer were not appreciated as God’s special gift, and therefore, called forth no gratitude to his Creator. He gloried in his brightness and exaltation and aspired to be equal with God. He was beloved and reverenced by the heavenly host, angels delighted to execute his commands, and he was clothed with wisdom and glory above them all. Yet the Son of God was exalted above him, as one in power and authority with the Father. He shared the Father’s counsels, while Lucifer did not thus enter into the purposes of God. “Why,” questioned this mighty angel, “should Christ have the supremacy? Why is He honored above Lucifer?” {PP 36.3}

Lucifer was at least on the road to coveting before, and could have repented without the execution of the plan of salvation. He started lying to the other angels and could have been brought back.

The point of no return for Lucifer was in the rejection of counsel from God, then leaving the presence of the Father and attacking the commandments.

"Leaving his place in the immediate presence of the Father, Lucifer went forth to diffuse the spirit of discontent among the angels".

"In great mercy, according to His divine character, God bore long with Lucifer."

He was not immediately thrown out of heaven until he crossed the line and spoke directly against God and His law.

"But such efforts as infinite love and wisdom only could devise, were made to convince him of his error. His disaffection was proved to be without cause, and he was made to see what would be the result of persisting in revolt. Lucifer was convinced that he was in the wrong. He saw that “the Lord is righteous in all His ways, and holy in all His works” (Psalm 145:17); that the divine statutes are just, and that he ought to acknowledge them as such before all heaven. Had he done this, he might have saved himself and many angels (Just like Adam and Eve before eating the fruit). He had not at that time fully cast off his allegiance to God. Though he had left his position as covering cherub, yet if he had been willing to return to God, acknowledging the Creator’s wisdom, and satisfied to fill the place appointed him in God’s great plan, he would have been reinstated in his office. The time had come for a final decision; he must fully yield to the divine sovereignty or place himself in open rebellion. He nearly reached the decision to return, but pride forbade him. It was too great a sacrifice for one who had been so highly honored to confess that he had been in error, that his imaginings were false, and to yield to the authority which he had been working to prove unjust. {PP 39.1}

The point of no return is in open defiance, committing the act of rebellion.

"God permitted Satan to carry forward his work until the spirit of disaffection ripened into active revolt."


Search me oh God and know my heart, test me and know my anxious thoughts, see if there is any offensive way in me and lead me to the way everlasting. Amen
Re: Did Christ have sinful tendencies? How does EGW use the word propensities? [Re: jamesonofthunder] #159333
12/18/13 04:38 AM
12/18/13 04:38 AM
jamesonofthunder  Offline
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The moment Adam and Eve ate the fruit was the point of no return, without sacrifice.


Search me oh God and know my heart, test me and know my anxious thoughts, see if there is any offensive way in me and lead me to the way everlasting. Amen
Re: Did Christ have sinful tendencies? How does EGW use the word propensities? [Re: jamesonofthunder] #159336
12/18/13 06:34 AM
12/18/13 06:34 AM
dedication  Online Content
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The question concerning thoughts?
When do thoughts (temptations) which lead to sin actually become sin? When does a person "cross the line"?

Temptation isn't sin -- yet the sinful thought has entered the mind during a temptation.
Yet, even though the first thoughts of temptation are not sin, if that sinful thoughts (which the person knows is sin) is cherished and fantasized upon it is counted as sin. Jesus made it plain that sinful thoughts cherished are sin.

Adam and Eve's sin was doubting God's Word. When the serpent first put those doubts into Eve's mind, they weren't sin yet, it all depended on what she would do with those thoughts, she was being tempted and temptation isn't sin (yet), it became sin when she believed the doubts were true and acted accordingly -- took the fruit and ate.

When Satan began to have thoughts of doubt and envy, he (like all the rest of the angels) didn't know what sin was. It wasn't until it was revealed to him what his thoughts were leading to and he deliberately chose to continue in and express those thoughts that it became sin.


Satan tried to plant thoughts of doubt and temptation into Christ's mind -- but no sooner were the thoughts registered then they were cast out and replaced with a "thus says the Lord" by Jesus.



James 1:14 But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust (lusting thoughts) , and enticed (tempted).
1:15 Then when lust hath conceived (lusting thoughts are accepted and implanted in the mind) , it brings forth sin (the person either acts on it or fantasizes on it): and sin, when it is finished, brings forth death.
1:16 Do not err, my beloved brethren.





Re: Did Christ have sinful tendencies? How does EGW use the word propensities? [Re: APL] #159340
12/18/13 02:39 PM
12/18/13 02:39 PM
Rosangela  Offline
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Quote:
You may disagree, but scripture says the prohibition was EATING the fruit.

Nobody would disagree with that. This was the act they should abstain from.

The tenth commandment strikes at the very root of all sins, prohibiting the selfish desire, from which springs the sinful act. {PP 309.5}

And the Bible is clear about it:

Gên 3:6 When the woman saw that the tree produced fruit that was good for food, was attractive to the eye, and was desirable for making one wise, she took some of its fruit and ate it.

It's clear that she coveted what God had forbidden, and this is sin.

Re: Did Christ have sinful tendencies? How does EGW use the word propensities? [Re: asygo] #159347
12/18/13 03:40 PM
12/18/13 03:40 PM
Mountain Man  Offline
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Originally Posted By: asygo
M: "It is the privilege of every believer in Christ to possess Christ's nature, a nature far above that which Adam forfeited by transgression." {UL 18.3} Does this nature tempt to indulge innocent and legitimate needs in sinful ways?

A: It can, but not inherently. Satan can still tempt it.

What do you mean by "tempt it"? What is "it"?

Also, since born-again believers "possess Christ's nature" does it mean their inclinations, tendencies, propensities are in harmony with the will of God?

Re: Did Christ have sinful tendencies? How does EGW use the word propensities? [Re: Mountain Man] #159348
12/18/13 03:45 PM
12/18/13 03:45 PM
Mountain Man  Offline
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Adam resolved to perish with Eve because the thought of living eternally without her was too painful. After this initial resolution he began to speculate, rationalize things about God that were unwarranted.

Re: Did Christ have sinful tendencies? How does EGW use the word propensities? [Re: dedication] #159349
12/18/13 04:40 PM
12/18/13 04:40 PM
APL  Offline OP
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Originally Posted By: dedication
The question concerning thoughts?
When do thoughts (temptations) which lead to sin actually become sin? When does a person "cross the line"?

Temptation isn't sin -- yet the sinful thought has entered the mind during a temptation.
Yet, even though the first thoughts of temptation are not sin, if that sinful thoughts (which the person knows is sin) is cherished and fantasized upon it is counted as sin. Jesus made it plain that sinful thoughts cherished are sin.

Adam and Eve's sin was doubting God's Word. When the serpent first put those doubts into Eve's mind, they weren't sin yet, it all depended on what she would do with those thoughts, she was being tempted and temptation isn't sin (yet), it became sin when she believed the doubts were true and acted accordingly -- took the fruit and ate.

When Satan began to have thoughts of doubt and envy, he (like all the rest of the angels) didn't know what sin was. It wasn't until it was revealed to him what his thoughts were leading to and he deliberately chose to continue in and express those thoughts that it became sin.


Satan tried to plant thoughts of doubt and temptation into Christ's mind -- but no sooner were the thoughts registered then they were cast out and replaced with a "thus says the Lord" by Jesus.



James 1:14 But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust (lusting thoughts) , and enticed (tempted).
1:15 Then when lust hath conceived (lusting thoughts are accepted and implanted in the mind) , it brings forth sin (the person either acts on it or fantasizes on it): and sin, when it is finished, brings forth death.
1:16 Do not err, my beloved brethren.


James is speaking of a post-fall brain. Adam was not post fall. After his transgression, his fall, there was nothing he could do to save himself.

Romans 8:7-8 Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be. 8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God.

I have many questions... If Adam's fall was soley based on his thinking, and this thinking causes all life to suffer, please explain how this happens. And, if Adam's thinking caused the whole system to fall apart, then there is an apparent defect in the system, which raises questions about the perfect creation. By whole system, I mean all life on this planet. Animals suffer under the curse of sin. But we know God's design is perfect, His works are perfect (Deuteronomy 32:4, Psalms 19:1-7). But the design is no longer perfect. Thus my conclusion (I'm telling you this is my conclusion, you can believe what ever you want) that the transgression in the beginning was an attack on God's creation, and this is something you can not do, for every jot and tittle of His creation is exact and it can not be changed, or else the system will fail. We know that "God's law is written by His own finger upon every nerve, every muscle, every faculty which has been entrusted to man." {SpM 40.6} How is God's law written on every muscle? In the most intricate writing media ever devised.

After Adam fell, every human being since has had a fallen nature. (Romans 5:12) The only thing a man passes to the next generation Isaiah 23 chromosomes. The woman supplies most of the cellular machinery. Sin is in the DNA, and Sin with a capital "S", the behavior it produces is "sin", small "s", these are the behaviors that Sin produces. The 10 commandments were added because of transgression (Sin), Galatians 3:19. The law is the CT Scanner of the soul, it points out what Sin is and does, Romans 7:7. The plan of salvation is for HEALING, it is a ministry of HEALING. Being born again is not a metaphor, but a literal process, John 3.

Is it not interesting that Satan in heaven before being cast out, was literaly lying about God. Lying! But all he needed to do is to confess and submit and he would have been restored, see GC chapter 29. He was lying, yet had not cast off allegience, as EGW writes. What did Satan do? Satan was perfect when he was created. But he perverted his freedom, and defined his "sanctuaries" with the multitude of his iniquities, and the iniquity was found in Him (Ezekiel 28:18; Ezekiel 28:15-16). Satan was perfect when he was created, but he perverted his own creation, and he took his battle to the earth and corrupted man. This is literal and physical. And as a result, all sickness, disease and ultimately death is the result. Sickness, disease and death are not imposed penalties inflicted because of sin, but the natural consequence of the trangression. Christ took our sickness (Matthew 8:17) and demonstrated the consequence of sin on the cross, and He knows how to help us, Hebrews 2:17-18.

It is Satan's constant effort to misrepresent the character of God, the nature of sin, and the real issues at stake in the great controversy. {GC 569.1}


Oh, that men might open their minds to know God as he is revealed in his Son! {ST, January 20, 1890}
Re: Did Christ have sinful tendencies? How does EGW use the word propensities? [Re: Rosangela] #159350
12/18/13 04:42 PM
12/18/13 04:42 PM
APL  Offline OP
SDA
Active Member 2020

5500+ Member
Joined: Feb 2011
Posts: 6,368
Western, USA
Originally Posted By: Rosangela
Quote:
You may disagree, but scripture says the prohibition was EATING the fruit.

Nobody would disagree with that. This was the act they should abstain from.

The tenth commandment strikes at the very root of all sins, prohibiting the selfish desire, from which springs the sinful act. {PP 309.5}

And the Bible is clear about it:

Gên 3:6 When the woman saw that the tree produced fruit that was good for food, was attractive to the eye, and was desirable for making one wise, she took some of its fruit and ate it.

It's clear that she coveted what God had forbidden, and this is sin.

The fact remains - no eating of the fruit - no transgression. That was the only prohibition given to Adam and Eve.


Oh, that men might open their minds to know God as he is revealed in his Son! {ST, January 20, 1890}
Re: Did Christ have sinful tendencies? How does EGW use the word propensities? [Re: APL] #159353
12/18/13 05:58 PM
12/18/13 05:58 PM
Rosangela  Offline
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Joined: Nov 2004
Posts: 6,154
Brazil
Transgression refers to willful disobedience, or willful sin.

Look at the first act of transgression in the Garden of Eden. To Adam and Eve were plainly stated the laws of Paradise, with the penalty for willful disobedience. They disobeyed, and disobedience brought its sure result. Death entered the world. {HP 153.2}

Like Lucifer, he sinned before he fell.

Re: Did Christ have sinful tendencies? How does EGW use the word propensities? [Re: Rosangela] #159354
12/18/13 06:11 PM
12/18/13 06:11 PM
APL  Offline OP
SDA
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5500+ Member
Joined: Feb 2011
Posts: 6,368
Western, USA
Originally Posted By: Rosangela
Transgression refers to willful disobedience, or willful sin.

Look at the first act of transgression in the Garden of Eden. To Adam and Eve were plainly stated the laws of Paradise, with the penalty for willful disobedience. They disobeyed, and disobedience brought its sure result. Death entered the world. {HP 153.2}

Again, he sinned before he fell.


I'm not sure I follow your logic. This transgression was EATING the fruit. He disobeyed, i.e., he ATE the fruit. That was his disobedience.


Oh, that men might open their minds to know God as he is revealed in his Son! {ST, January 20, 1890}
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