Elle : Well "retsach" means "a crushing" So I can see that there is some application within the context. I don't think a sword is a good instrument to "crush" someone's bones, I would think a hammer or rock would do that job better. But regardless, that's why we need to look at the Hebrew word to really have a better understanding of the text. I agree two occurrences is not many to go by and I haven't looked at the two texts context to see if there are one of these that we can derive a definition of "retsach".
GreenC: So, is it only "murder" (since you say that "ratsach" has the same root meaning as "retsach") prohibited by the sixth commandment if one uses stones, hammers, etc. to do the deed?
No, the tool can be anything as specified in Num 35 : iron tool (v.16) stone (v.17) or wood (v.18). Thus a hammer would fall into the category of an iron tool.
What I was saying above is "r
etsach" was translated by KJV in Ps 42:10 as "sword".( "
[As] with a sword[retsach, meaning "a crushing"]
in my bones, mine enemies reproach me; while they say daily unto me, Where [is] thy God?") Other version used other English words, however no matter. But I thought that the KJV should of used a better instrument that would actually "crush" his bones like a sledge hammer. I visualized a sword cutting the bones, not crushing it.
If a sword is used, it would not violate the sixth commandment? Is that what your definitions are leading you to conclude?
No. A sword is an instrument of iron and fit in the category in Num 35:16. I view Num 35:16-18 naming all the possible tools used to murder someone in those days. Thus to me the spirit of the law is saying anything used to murder(ratsach) someone is murder. Tools makes no matter.
I answered this post because I forgot to say the following:
ratsach & r
etsach are basically the same word for they are spelled exactly the same way :
Resh,
Tsade,
Chet. The difference is found in the vowels that are represented by those little markings on top, bottom or side of the consonants. Vowels do not constitute the meaning of the word. It is the consonants that does as each character has a meaning and it is the sum of the characters meaning that constitute the word meaning. So both words have the same consonants thus that's why their meaning are relatively the same.
ratsach = "to dash in pieces"
r
etsach = "a crushing"
None of these words means "murder", "put to death", "kill", or "slay" like the KJV and other translation has translated these.
ratsach means "murder" only when applied toward a man. As far as I can see, all the occurences in the Bible of ratsach was towards a man, thus that's why we only see the word translated in those 4 similar words in the KJV.
But you can ratsach a pumpkin, a cow, a rock, a glass window, etc... If the context of ratsach would of been used with any of these words in the Bible, the KJV or other version might of translated it as to "crush", "slaughter", "crush", "smash" respectively. The English translation of the word "ratsach" depended on its application. But in Hebrew, they don't have 100 words to expressed all the possible applications. They have one word, and it is ratsach. You only need to say ratsach and can apply it to any possible circumstances.