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Re: What is the Truth About The Foreknowledge of God? [Re: Charity] #88634
05/04/07 07:04 PM
05/04/07 07:04 PM
Tom  Offline
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Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
MS:You may say, yes but God loves everyone. That's true. But God did not set His love on all the heathen nations as He did on Israel.

TE:Only because they weren't willing. Israel, as bad as it was, was still the people the most potentially receptive to God's love and leading. God is not a respecter of persons. He dispenses truth as quickly as we are able and willing to receive it, whether as individuals or groups.

If the convenant and oath of God with Abraham was simply a matter of God's foreknowledge, that is, God made it because He knew they would respond the most favorably, then it has no depth of meaning.

I agree. God’s choice of Israel was not based on His foreknowledge.

The main lesson of the covenant is that God first loved His people and that love liberated them from physical and spiritual bondage the same as it does for us today and His love is also His claim to our heart's devotion.

I agree. God would have worked with other peoples as well, had they been willing. In fact, God often tried to do this.

Quote:
7:8 But because the LORD loved you, and because he would keep the oath which he had sworn unto your fathers, hath the LORD brought you out with a mighty hand, and redeemed you out of the house of bondmen, from the hand of Pharaoh king of Egypt.
7:9 Know therefore that the LORD thy God, he [is] God, the faithful God, which keepeth covenant and mercy with them that love him and keep his commandments to a thousand generations;
7:10 And repayeth them that hate him to their face, to destroy them: Deut.


So, in the above text we have the correct balance. God first loves and enters into a covenant with His chosen people.

God is not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to a knowledge of the truth. Whosoever will may come. God’s love is drying all unto Himself.

 Quote:
"No man can come to Me, except the Father which hath sent Me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day. It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto Me." None will ever come to Christ, save those who respond to the drawing of the Father's love. But God is drawing all hearts unto Him, and only those who resist His drawing will refuse to come to Christ. (DA 387)


This puts it well. God draws all unto Himself. Only those who resist His drawing refuse to come to Christ.


The covenant is intended to last forever, to a thousand generations. We as individuals and as a church can still turn our backs on it but if we do, it only magnifies the grace of God in setting his love on those whom He foreknew would finally reject it.

This last part doesn’t seem to be the picture we get from Scripture. Instead we see God expressing disappointment, surprise, dismay, regret, and other emotions when He is rejected. A person, or group of persons, is free to either reject or accept. God sees both possibilities. If a person is self-determining, then there is nothing for God to foreknow but possibilities until the self-determining person makes a determination, at which point the possibility becomes a reality. The future is fundamentally different than the past or present.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: What is the Truth About The Foreknowledge of God? [Re: Tom] #88710
05/08/07 08:43 PM
05/08/07 08:43 PM
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Charity  Offline
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God draws all to himself, that's true. But does he enter into a covenant with everyone? No. The covenant is made with the elect saints. Ellen White says the church is the special object of God's love. God loves everyone but the church is special because she is the elect bride of Christ. And if you have any doubts that God is especially in love with the bride, read the Song of Solomon which is especially about the courtship of Christ or Solomon and the church, the Shulamite shepherdess.

Re: What is the Truth About The Foreknowledge of God? [Re: Charity] #88726
05/09/07 12:19 AM
05/09/07 12:19 AM
Tom  Offline
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Lawrence, Kansas
God draws all to himself, that's true. But does he enter into a covenant with everyone? No. The covenant is made with the elect saints.

He enters into a covenant to whoever does not resist His drawing. These are the elect. God is not a respector of persons. Whosoever will may come.

Ellen White says the church is the special object of God's love.

Of course. These are they who have responded to God's invitation, exteneded to all. Those who respond are afforded special care and love. Anyone can take part.

God loves everyone but the church is special because she is the elect bride of Christ. And if you have any doubts that God is especially in love with the bride, read the Song of Solomon which is especially about the courtship of Christ or Solomon and the church, the Shulamite shepherdess.

No doubts about God's loving the church. Just doubts that God unilaterally chooses some over others. I see that God chooses all who do not reject His drawing.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: What is the Truth About The Foreknowledge of God? [Re: Tom] #88747
05/09/07 03:25 PM
05/09/07 03:25 PM
Mountain Man  Offline
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Mark, how are you relating these insights to the topic of this thread?

Re: What is the Truth About The Foreknowledge of God? [Re: Mountain Man] #89786
06/11/07 11:30 PM
06/11/07 11:30 PM
Daryl  Online Canadian
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Nova Scotia, Canada


In His Love, Mercy & Grace,

Daryl smile

John 8:32 And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free.

http://www.christians-discuss.com/forum/index.php
Re: What is the Truth About The Foreknowledge of God? [Re: Daryl] #90270
07/01/07 07:59 PM
07/01/07 07:59 PM
Daryl  Online Canadian
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Posts: 25,132
Nova Scotia, Canada


I thought I would bump this again. \:\)


In His Love, Mercy & Grace,

Daryl smile

John 8:32 And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free.

http://www.christians-discuss.com/forum/index.php
Re: What is the Truth About The Foreknowledge of God? [Re: vastergotland] #91630
08/29/07 10:23 PM
08/29/07 10:23 PM
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DenBorg  Offline
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I know it's been a very long time since these comments to which I'm replying were made. I have been rather busy, but I've been wanting to make a few comments in reply.

 Originally Posted By: västergötland
 Quote:
You have the cause-and-effect relationship all backwards, as I have stated elsewhere.

You are saying that I spilled my drink (and God knew for certain that I would do so) because the future says my shirt is wet. But the truth of the matter is that my shirt was wet because I spilled my drink on my shirt.
Surely you can see why this argument is flawed. If God knows the future perfectly, He not only knows that your shirt will be wet, He also knows that it will be wet because you will spill your drink on your shirt, and He knows what drink you will spill even though you havent yet written what you have in your glas.


Your above statements are correct: If God knows the future perfectly (and He does), He knows that my shirt will be wet and why it will be wet, and all the details such as what was spilled on it.

But your following comments is where you get off track.

 Originally Posted By: västergötland
Furthermore, there is no way that you will not spill that drink on that shirt because if you do no spill it, then God would know something of the future that did not happen and that would make God wrong. And since we believe that God is not wrong, then if He knows that you will spill drink on your shirt, you surely will have a wet shirt in the appointed time wether you like it or not.


Here you are saying that I no longer have any free-will or free choice ("Furthermore, there is no way that you will not spill that drink on that shirt"). Why do you say that? Because if I happened not to spill it, "then God would know something of the future that did not happen and that would make God wrong".

Your above comments accurately illustrate your belief that if God knew the future, then that foreknowledge would fix our future and we'd have no freedom of choice. But since you believe that we do have free choice, you therefore conclude that God does not know exactly what happens in the future.

It is entirely clear that you believe that God's perfect foreknowledge and our freedom of choice are two mutually exclusive things. But the truth is, they are not mutually exclusive, nor would God's perfect foreknowledge determine our future.

You tell us that if we have freedom of choice and if God had perfect knowledge of the future at the same time, then God could see me spill the drink on my shirt, but if I actually choose not to spill it, then God would be wrong. So, given your statement to this effect, tell me, How can God perfectly see the future and get it wrong? If I did not spill my drink, how could He possibly foresee me spilling it?! (you suggested that He would get it wrong) If I did not spill my drink, and God looked at the future, He would not see that I spilled it.

It's like you're saying that God cannot be trusted with knowing the future, because He could see the future as it will be and somehow get it wrong.

 Originally Posted By: västergötland
The cause and effect is still there, true. Your shirt becomes wet because you spilled a glas of drink on it. But if the future is fully known, then this cause must happen becaues it is predicted so. That drink will spill just as surely as Cyrus was born to overthrow Babylon.


The part of your comment which I've bolded is wrong. It isn't that it must happen, but rather that it will ... not because the future is fully known, but because that is the choice that will be made.

Your assertion above is wrong: that if the future is fully known then that foreknowledge fixes/determines the future.

 Originally Posted By: västergötland
On the other hand, with an open future, God could still make prophecy. The difference is that instead of telling the prophets about the future that in Gods eyes has already happened, He tells the prophets about what He plans to do. And surely God would have no problem with causing a child to be named Cyrus, then causing that child to be trained in leadership and warefare tactics and finaly through him open the gates of Babylon to kill a drunken king? In my view, exact prophecy is exact for the reason that God makes things happen. One could say He creates that which He has predicted.


The future is "open" ... and God's perfect foreknowledge in which the future is fully known by Him does not fix or determine the future. Just because God knows perfectly what will happen, does not mean that they must happen... it simply means that they will happen; but they will still happen because of our choices, not because of God's foreknowledge.

You are suggesting that the only way God can predict exact prophecies is for Him to cause them to happen. So then, since Jesus predicted that Peter would deny Him three times, then God caused Peter to deny Him. And since God predicted that Jesus would be betrayed for 30 pieces of silver, then God caused Judas to betray Jesus. Yet somehow, God still charges the sinner with these sins when God Himself would be the guilty party if what you say is correct: that these exact prophecies are exact only because God causes them to happen.

In the view of God knowing the future beforehand, instead of correctly saying "I chose to do this", and instead of casting blame by the excuse, "The devil made me do it", you would instead be saying, "God made me do this evil." That is a sad thing to suggest, and a very slippery slope!

It is written:
 Quote:
I am God, and there is none else; I am God, and there is none like me, Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things that are not yet done
-Isaiah 46:9,10

Re: What is the Truth About The Foreknowledge of God? [Re: DenBorg] #91635
08/30/07 02:08 AM
08/30/07 02:08 AM
Tom  Offline
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Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
I don't what post this is you're citing, DenBorg, but I'll make a few comments. First of all, God's knowledge of the future is a bit of a red herring in this question. What is mutually exclusive is free will + future is fixed. It's really the nature of the future that's the problem. Is the future fixed, or is it comprised of possibilities?

Regarding your shirt getting wet. Is it possible that you not spill water on your shirt at the specified point in the future when God saw this taking place? That God saw it really doesn't matter. The salient point is that *anybody* could see it, whether God, or any other creature. If someone can see what will happen in the future, and what is seen will of a certainty take place, then, clearly, something different than what is seen will certainly *not* take place, and there goes free will, assuming a libertarian, or incompatibilistic, definition of free will, which gets to how free will is defined.

There are two main ways, theologically, that free will can be defined. One is that you are free to choose to do one of more than one mutually exclusive events (e.g., you can spill water on your shirt or not). The other is that you are free to do that which you choose to do.

Actually spilling water on your shirt isn't a good choice for an event, since that is likely something which happens accidentally, so does not involve free will, since you did not will for the water to fall on your shirt. So let's change this slightly to taking a drink of water, something you would choose consciously to do.

Ok, under the definition of free will that you are free to do that which you choose to do (compatibilistic), it doesn't matter if God (or anyone else) sees what you will do, since you are simply doing what you want to do regardless of whether it's seen or not.

However, under the incompatibilistic, or libertarian, definition, for you to have free will it must be possible for you to either choose to drink the water or not. If it can be seen that you definitely will drink the water (by God, or anyone else), then there is no possibility that you won't, so under the incompatibilistic definition you cannot be said to have free will.

So whether there is a contradiction involved viz a viz the future and free will depends upon your view of the future (fixed vs. open) and free will (compatibilistic definition, or incompatibilistic).


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: What is the Truth About The Foreknowledge of God? [Re: Tom] #91636
08/30/07 05:32 PM
08/30/07 05:32 PM
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DenBorg  Offline
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Posts: 146
Blanchard, OK
 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
First of all, God's knowledge of the future is a bit of a red herring in this question. What is mutually exclusive is free will + future is fixed. It's really the nature of the future that's the problem. Is the future fixed, or is it comprised of possibilities?

No, I disagree. God's foreknowledge is not a red herring. For you are trying to tell us by your arguments that God's perfect foreknowledge would mean that the future is "fixed". So God's foreknowledge is not a red herring at all.


 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
Regarding your shirt getting wet. Is it possible that you not spill water on your shirt at the specified point in the future when God saw this taking place? That God saw it really doesn't matter.

That is correct: It is possible that I not spill, and it is possible that I do spill ... it is based entirely upon my actions and choices, not upon whether God knows the outcome beforehand.


 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
The salient point is that *anybody* could see it, whether God, or any other creature.

What?! Are you trying to tell us that we all omniscient and can see the future?! If so then I must wholeheartedly disagree.


 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
If someone can see what will happen in the future, and what is seen will of a certainty take place, then, clearly, something different than what is seen will certainly *not* take place,

That is true ... if the future is perfectly seen (which it is by God, for His Holy and true Word tells us He is omniscient, and declares the end from the beginning), then what is seen to happen in the future will happen in the future ...

... but not because of what you are about to say next (that free will is out the window and that what happens is because of the foreknowledge instead of because of the choices made), but rather it will happen because of free will and the choices made.


 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
and there goes free will,

No, free will does not go out the window. What is foreseen of the future will happen because of the choices made (i.e. free will), not because the foreknowledge somehow fixes the future.


 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
assuming a libertarian, or incompatibilistic, definition of free will, which gets to how free will is defined.

There are two main ways, theologically, that free will can be defined. One is that you are free to choose to do one of more than one mutually exclusive events (e.g., you can spill water on your shirt or not). The other is that you are free to do that which you choose to do.

I'm sorry, but this is nonsense. This is not two different definitions of free will. This is only a difference in the type of choices presented to the person!

If you are faced with a choice of two mutually exclusive events (such as drinking or not drinking), and then an hour later you are faced with a choice of two events not mutually exclusive (having a sandwich and/or a piece of cake), does the definition of 'free will' oscillate between two differing definitions, simply because in one case you are faced with mutual exclusivity, and then in the other case you could do one or the other or both? No! The definition of 'free will' remains constant, regardless of whether you have to choose between two mutual exclusive things, or whether you can do one, the other, or both.

The definition of free will is very simple: as a free moral agent, you get to choose for yourself to act or to act otherwise without being coerced. This is true whether you must choose between A and B which are mutually exclusive, and whether you may choose between doing A, or B, or both A and B.

And when A and B are mutually exclusive events, the future will contain only A or B, not both. And whether it contains A or B is governed by the one faced with the choice. And if God definitely knew the decision made, that does not mean that the person was robbed of free will; it simply means that God knew exactly how it would turn out. But the future is what it is because of the person's choice, not because the future was somehow "fixed".

Some choices are mutually exclusive .. it is impossible to do both. For example, you can either take a drink, or you can not take a drink. But you cannot both drink and not drink. That is a choice between two mutually exclusive activities. It is a physical and logical impossibility to do both!

Other choices are not mutually exclusive. For example, you can choose to put money into the offering for local church budget, or you can put money in the offering for the upcoming evangelistic meetings. You can do one, or the other, or you can do both.

Either way, "you are free to do that which you choose to do".

In one case, the choices are mutually exclusive, and you are free to do that which you choose to do ... you can choose between the two mutually exclusive events.

In the other case, they are not mutually exclusive. But still, either way, you are free to do that which you choose to do.

In either case, these are two different types of choices, not two different definitions of free will. The first is an example of mutually exclusive activities. The other an example of two activities of which you can do one or the other, or you can do both.


 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
Actually spilling water on your shirt isn't a good choice for an event, since that is likely something which happens accidentally, so does not involve free will, since you did not will for the water to fall on your shirt. So let's change this slightly to taking a drink of water, something you would choose consciously to do.

OK.


 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
Ok, under the definition of free will that you are free to do that which you choose to do (compatibilistic), it doesn't matter if God (or anyone else) sees what you will do, since you are simply doing what you want to do regardless of whether it's seen or not.

However, under the incompatibilistic, or libertarian, definition, for you to have free will it must be possible for you to either choose to drink the water or not. If it can be seen that you definitely will drink the water (by God, or anyone else), then there is no possibility that you won't, so under the incompatibilistic definition you cannot be said to have free will.

In either "definition", it is possible for you to either drink or not drink. Contrary to your assertion above, simply because God knows beforehand what your decision will be, does not mean that God forced you to decide one way or the other.

Just because God sees the future perfectly for what it will be, does not mean that the future is predetermined by God. You are simply taking many words to say the following:
 Quote:
If God knows the future perfectly, then you have no free will, because His foreknowledge predetermines what will happen, and you have no choice in the matter. And since we do not believe that we are denied free will, then God cannot possibly know the future with perfect clarity.
This is all based upon the faulty premise that God's perfect foreknowledge of the future requires a fixed future.


Here is a quote from one of your previous posts:
 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
 Quote:
First, the future isn’t determined by God’s foreknowledge.

Correct! However, it must be determined for God to have a foreknowledge

If God knows the future perfectly, and if it isn't our free will nor God's foreknowledge which determines/fixes the future, then what does fix it in this case? For you presuppose that if God knows the future perfectly, then we have no free will. Therefore, according to you, our free will cannot determine what the future will be like. But you have also previously said that God's foreknowledge, which requires the future to be fixed/predetermined, is not what fixes or predetermines the future. So what, exactly, according to your way of thinking, would have fixed the future?!

And considering the following two quotes of yours from a couple of previous posts:
 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
This isn't quite accurate. God does not know *definitively* that portion of the future which is contingent on man's free choice.

 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
 Quote:
For example, when God said to Peter, "You will deny me three times," was that just a really good guess of what he thought Peter might do, or did He cause Peter to sin, or was it simply God knowing the facts so well that He could know for certain the effects of future causes on Peter, or something else?
Of course He didn't cause Peter to sin. Do you really think that was a possibility?
God knew Peter's character. That was the main thing. He also knew what was about to happen. Certain elements of what would happen would depend upon the free will choice of sentient beings, but it certainly would not have been difficult to know that Peter would deny Christ. Again, God knew his character.

The question posed to you about whether Peter denied the Lord because God made him do so or because of his free choice, was prompted by Thomas' comment that "In my view, exact prophecy is exact for the reason that God makes things happen.", and you seem to at least partly support that idea.

I agree ... simply knowing Peter's character as well as did God, that alone would tell you that Peter would deny his Lord. However, while his character would indicate that he would deny his Lord, it cannot indicate that he would do so exactly three times, and exactly at the time Jesus said it would happen (before the cock crowed that very night).

So you are left with either God does know the future with perfect clarity, or God took a very big chance on being wrong by making such an exacting, precise prophecy.

Remember, Jesus did not say to Peter, "I know you so well, that I just know you will deny me." But rather, Jesus was very explicit and exact:
 Quote:
Jesus said to him, “Assuredly, I say to you that this night, before the rooster crows, you will deny Me three times.
Matthew 26:34

Now, was this exact prophecy fulfilled because Peter had no choice because Jesus said that it will happen and therefore God made him deny Jesus three times, that very night, all before the cock crowed?

Or was it fulfilled because of the choices that Peter made, and God simply knew what his choice would be before Peter knew and He knew all of the explicit details because He knows the future with perfect clarity, but it still happened because Peter chose to do so? IOW, God knew it defintely, "assuredly", beforehand ... but this in no wise took away Peter's free will.

Last edited by DenBorg; 08/30/07 09:43 PM. Reason: clarity
Re: What is the Truth About The Foreknowledge of God? [Re: DenBorg] #91637
08/30/07 10:03 PM
08/30/07 10:03 PM
Tom  Offline
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Tom:
First of all, God's knowledge of the future is a bit of a red herring in this question. What is mutually exclusive is free will + future is fixed. It's really the nature of the future that's the problem. Is the future fixed, or is it comprised of possibilities?

Denberg:No, I disagree. God's foreknowledge is not a red herring. For you are trying to tell us by your arguments that God's perfect foreknowledge would mean that the future is "fixed". So God's foreknowledge is not a red herring at all.

No, God's knowledge of the future has nothing to do with it's being fixed. If you think that's what's being argued, you haven't understood the argument.

Tom:Regarding your shirt getting wet. Is it possible that you not spill water on your shirt at the specified point in the future when God saw this taking place? That God saw it really doesn't matter.

DenBorg:That is correct: It is possible that I not spill, and it is possible that I do spill ... it is based entirely upon my actions and choices, not upon whether God knows the outcome beforehand.

It has never been suggested that God's knowing the outcome of an event causes it to happen. I'm getting the impression that you think this is what is being argued, but it's not.

Tom:
The salient point is that *anybody* could see it, whether God, or any other creature.

DenBorg:What?! Are you trying to tell us that we all omniscient and can see the future?! If so then I must wholeheartedly disagree.

I'm pretty amazed by this response. My point was that it doesn't matter who sees the future. The salient point is that the future is seeable. Pointing out that this is the salient point in no way suggests that anyone is omniscient. I have no idea why you would jump to this conclusion.

Tom:
If someone can see what will happen in the future, and what is seen will of a certainty take place, then, clearly, something different than what is seen will certainly *not* take place,

DenBorg:That is true ... if the future is perfectly seen (which it is by God, for His Holy and true Word tells us He is omniscient, and declares the end from the beginning), then what is seen to happen in the future will happen in the future ...

... but not because of what you are about to say next (that free will is out the window and that what happens is because of the foreknowledge instead of because of the choices made), but rather it will happen because of free will and the choices made.

The point is if the future is seeable (who sees it doesn't matter, just that it is something which can be seen) then it is fixed. If it is fixed, then only one thing can happen in the future. This is not addressing in any way, shape, or form the *cause* of the action.

You keep stressing, over and over, that God's seeing the future does not cause it to happen, but this has never been suggested. I've never addressed causality.


Tom:
and there goes free will,

DenBorg:No, free will does not go out the window.

It does assuming one is using the libertarian definition.

DenBorg:What is foreseen of the future will happen because of the choices made (i.e. free will), not because the foreknowledge somehow fixes the future.

It's irrelevant *why* the future will happen the way it will. *That* the future will happen the way it will is the salient point.


Tom:
assuming a libertarian, or incompatibilistic, definition of free will, which gets to how free will is defined.

There are two main ways, theologically, that free will can be defined. One is that you are free to choose to do one of more than one mutually exclusive events (e.g., you can spill water on your shirt or not). The other is that you are free to do that which you choose to do.

DenBorg:I'm sorry, but this is total absurdity! This is not two different definitions of free will.

I don't know why you assert something like this. This is just basic theology. Here's an introduction: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theodicy

DenBorg: This is only a difference in the type of choices presented to the person!

It has nothing to do with types of choices. I just explained what the two main definitions for free will are, in theology.

DenBorg: Some choices are mutually exclusive .. it is impossible to do both. For example, you can either take a drink, or you can not take a drink. But you cannot both drink and not drink. That is a choice between two mutually exclusive activities. It is a physical and logical impossibility to do both!

Of course. Why are you making this point?

DenBord:Other choices are not mutually exclusive. For example, you can choose to put money into the offering for local church budget, or you can put money in the offering for the upcoming evangelistic meetings. You can do one, or the other, or you can do both.

Either way, "you are free to do that which you choose to do".

In one case, the choices are mutually exclusive, and you are free to do that which you choose to do ... you can choose between the two mutually exclusive events.

In the other case, they are not mutually exclusive. But still, either way, you are free to do that which you choose to do.

In either case, these are two different types of choices, not two different definitions of free will. The first is an example of mutually exclusive activities. The other an example of two activities of which you can do one or the other, or you can do both.

Why are you making these points?


Tom:
Actually spilling water on your shirt isn't a good choice for an event, since that is likely something which happens accidentally, so does not involve free will, since you did not will for the water to fall on your shirt. So let's change this slightly to taking a drink of water, something you would choose consciously to do.

DenBord: OK.


Tom:
Ok, under the definition of free will that you are free to do that which you choose to do (compatibilistic), it doesn't matter if God (or anyone else) sees what you will do, since you are simply doing what you want to do regardless of whether it's seen or not.

However, under the incompatibilistic, or libertarian, definition, for you to have free will it must be possible for you to either choose to drink the water or not. If it can be seen that you definitely will drink the water (by God, or anyone else), then there is no possibility that you won't, so under the incompatibilistic definition you cannot be said to have free will.

DenBorg:In either "definition", it is possible for you to either drink or not drink. Contrary to your assertion above, simply because God knows beforehand what your decision will be, does not mean that God forced you to decide one way or the other.

This has never been claimed. No assertion has been made about God's forcing anything to happen.

DenBorg: Just because God sees the future perfectly for what it will be, does not mean that the future is predetermined by God.

Or course not. This has not been asserted.

DenBorg: You are simply taking many words to say the following:

Quote:
If God knows the future perfectly, then you have no free will, because His foreknowledge predetermines what will happen, and you have no choice in the matter.

I've never asserted this. What you have quoted is no logically valid.

DenBorg: Here is a quote from one of your previous posts:

Quote:
First, the future isn’t determined by God’s foreknowledge.

DenBorg: Correct! However, it must be determined for God to have a foreknowledge.

If God knows the future perfectly, and if it isn't our free will nor God's foreknowledge which determines/fixes the future, then what does fix it in this case?

Nothing fixes it. It's not fixed. It's open.

DenBorg: For you presuppose that if God knows the future perfectly, then we have no free will.

God's knowledge of the future is irrelevant to what I've been saying. You keep making this same assertion over and over, but what you are suggesting has never been argued, at least not by me.

DenBorg: Therefore, according to you, our free will cannot determine what the future will be like. But you have also previously said that God's foreknowledge, which requires the future to be fixed/predetermined, is not what fixes or predetermines the future. So what, exactly, according to your way of thinking, would have fixed the future?!

I have not previously said that God's foreknowledge requires the future to be fixed. Actually I think I know what you mean, but you're not being very precise in stating it. It would probably be a good idea to quote something directly, then comment on that, rather than repeatedly make assertions that I've said things I haven't said.

DenBorg: And considering the following two quotes of yours from a couple of previous posts:

Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
This isn't quite accurate. God does not know *definitively* that portion of the future which is contingent on man's free choice.

Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
Quote:
For example, when God said to Peter, "You will deny me three times," was that just a really good guess of what he thought Peter might do, or did He cause Peter to sin, or was it simply God knowing the facts so well that He could know for certain the effects of future causes on Peter, or something else?
Of course He didn't cause Peter to sin. Do you really think that was a possibility?
God knew Peter's character. That was the main thing. He also knew what was about to happen. Certain elements of what would happen would depend upon the free will choice of sentient beings, but it certainly would not have been difficult to know that Peter would deny Christ. Again, God knew his character.

The question posed to you about whether Peter denied the Lord because God made him do so or because of his free choice, was prompted by Thomas' comment that "In my view, exact prophecy is exact for the reason that God makes things happen.", and you seem to at least partly support that idea.

I agree ... simply knowing Peter's character as well as did God, that alone would tell you that Peter would deny his Lord. However, while his character would indicate that he would deny his Lord, it cannot indicate that he would do so exactly three times, and exactly at the time Jesus said it would happen (before the cock crowed that very night).

So you are left with either God does know the future with perfect clarity, or God took a very big chance on being wrong by making such an exacting, precise prophecy.

Even the Gospel writers don't agree as to the details of the story. Surely the important thing isn't how many times the cock would crow, but that Peter would deny Christ. How did Christ know Peter would deny Him? Because He knew his character.

DenBorg: Remember, Jesus did not say to Peter, "I know you so well, that I just know you will deny me." But rather, Jesus was very explicit and exact:

Say there are a trillion possible futures, as of the time Jesus was speaking to Peter. In all of those trillion futures, God saw that Peter would deny Christ before the cock crowed some number of times. There is no logical problem with God's being able to predict the future, and there being more than one possible future.

I've never argued that God cannot see the future perfectly, only that the future is not fixed, which is to say, there is no one future. There are many possible futures, which is exactly what God sees. He doesn't see the one future of what will happen, because there is no such thing.


Quote:
Jesus said to him, “Assuredly, I say to you that this night, before the rooster crows, you will deny Me three times.”
Matthew 26:34

Now, was this exact prophecy fulfilled because Peter had no choice because Jesus said that it will happen and therefore God made him deny Jesus three times, that very night, all before the cock crowed?

Or was it fulfilled because of the choices that Peter made, and God simply knew what his choice would be before Peter knew and He knew all of the explicit details because He knows the future with perfect clarity, but it still happened because Peter chose to do so? IOW, God knew it defintely, "assuredly", beforehand ... but this in no wise took away Peter's free will.

The prophesy was fulfilled because God knew Peter's character, and knew what he would do.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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