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Re: What does "Blameless" and "Upright" before God mean...? [Re: Mountain Man] #97978
04/09/08 06:52 AM
04/09/08 06:52 AM
V
vastergotland  Offline
Active Member 2011
3500+ Member
Joined: May 2002
Posts: 3,965
Sweden
People who are abiding in Jesus are blameless and upright before God because He is blameless and upright.


Galatians 2
21 I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.

It is so hazardous to take here a little and there a little. If you put the right little's together you can make the bible teach anything you wish. //Graham Maxwell
Re: What does "Blameless" and "Upright" before God mean...? [Re: Tom] #97979
04/09/08 06:58 AM
04/09/08 06:58 AM
V
vastergotland  Offline
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Joined: May 2002
Posts: 3,965
Sweden
 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
 Quote:
It seems to be saying that even the unfallen beings need Christ's covering. I'm not exactly comfortable with that.


He's not making a legal statement, but one of function. Christ was designated to be the one who makes known the Father. No one comes to the Father but by Him. This isn't because of a legal problem.

Waggoner makes clear that this is his point by stating the following:

 Quote:
No new power was developed, no new machinery, so to speak, was required to be set in motion by the entering of sin into the world.


If Waggoner had been speaking to a legal issue, then he would not have said that no new machinery was required to be set in motion. Waggoner's point is that Christ continued in His role of Mediator, or Revelator (to coin a word), after sin entered.

It seems clear to me that Waggoner had this in mind. Actually, I wouldn't have minded had he gone into more detail on this point, but he seems to have been focused on bringing out the point that Christ has always been our Mediator.

 Quote:
Then, these beings can be in the direct presence of Christ, but not God's. That implies a distinction between the Father and Son that doesn't sit well with me.


John writes, "No one has seen God at any time. His only Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, has declared Him." (John 1:18;"declare" here means "to make known").

Assuming the "no one" here means "no created being," I think John is expressing the same idea as Waggoner.
How could the seraphim serve at the throne of God if they need Jesus as a mediator? I think thinking that John would have adressed more than our human condition is reading into the text. After all, what would he have known about the relationship between out of space beings and God and even more importantly, what does it benefit us to know about such things? That would only tickle our curiosity.


Galatians 2
21 I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.

It is so hazardous to take here a little and there a little. If you put the right little's together you can make the bible teach anything you wish. //Graham Maxwell
Re: What does "Blameless" and "Upright" before God mean...? [Re: Tom] #97980
04/09/08 07:18 AM
04/09/08 07:18 AM
asygo  Offline
SDA
Active Member 2023

5500+ Member
Joined: Feb 2006
Posts: 5,607
California, USA
 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
If Waggoner had been speaking to a legal issue, then he would not have said that no new machinery was required to be set in motion. Waggoner's point is that Christ continued in His role of Mediator, or Revelator (to coin a word), after sin entered.

I agree with your analysis. And that's exactly the point that makes me uncomfortable.

I can wrap my mind around the idea of sinful beings needing a Mediator - a Mercy Seat - to stand between the living and the dead. But I don't see why God would make creatures with whom He cannot directly interact.

 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
Assuming the "no one" here means "no created being," I think John is expressing the same idea as Waggoner.

I'm going with Thomas on this one. I don't think John meant his comment to be so far-reaching in its application.


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
Re: What does "Blameless" and "Upright" before God mean...? [Re: asygo] #97985
04/09/08 01:54 PM
04/09/08 01:54 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
The greek term "cosmos" for "world" is an interesting one. The Great Controversy theme, detailed by Ellen White, is not as explicit in Scripture, and SDA's are often asked to show its existence from Scripture. There are different ways to approach this question, but one observation is that the statements like John 1:18 may not be referring strictly to humans. To give one more example, in John 8:32 John quotes Jesus as saying "And I, if I be lifted up, will draw all unto Me."

I really don't know what John had in mind as he wrote these things. I'm throwing out the idea as something to think about; also trying to understand more clearly what Waggoner had in mind. I know Waggoner speaks to the non-arbitrariness of things, so I feel sure that entered into his thinking.

It's good food for though. Our church had quite a number of deep thinkings in the 1890's. One hears most often of Jones and Waggoner, of course, but there were others with whom God was working, as the time for Christ's coming was very near. Reading though the GCB's of the time (General Conference Bulletins) of the time, it's amazing to see the breadth of knowledge these men had, as well as the depth of thought.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: What does "Blameless" and "Upright" before God mean...? [Re: asygo] #97995
04/09/08 04:40 PM
04/09/08 04:40 PM
Mountain Man  Offline
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
 Originally Posted By: asygo
 Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
People who are abiding in Jesus are blameless and upright before God because they are blameless and upright.

 Quote:
Christ's character stands in place of your character, and you are accepted before God just as if you had not sinned. {SC 62.2}

Our title is not based on what God does in us.

True. Title and fitness are two different aspects of being blameless and upright in the sight of God. Nevertheless, it is still true that people who are abiding in Jesus are blameless and upright in the sight of God because they are blameless and upright - both forensically (imputed righteousness) and intrinsically (imparted righteousness). Do you agree?

Re: What does "Blameless" and "Upright" before God mean...? [Re: vastergotland] #97996
04/09/08 04:43 PM
04/09/08 04:43 PM
Mountain Man  Offline
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
 Originally Posted By: västergötland
People who are abiding in Jesus are blameless and upright before God because He is blameless and upright.

Thomas, do you apply this to sanctification (imparted righteousness), too? Or, does it only apply to justification (imputed righteousness)? Are people who are abiding in Jesus only blameless and upright in the legally declared sense; or, are they blameless and upright in reality?

Re: What does "Blameless" and "Upright" before God mean...? [Re: Mountain Man] #98000
04/09/08 04:56 PM
04/09/08 04:56 PM
asygo  Offline
SDA
Active Member 2023

5500+ Member
Joined: Feb 2006
Posts: 5,607
California, USA
 Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
Nevertheless, it is still true that people who are abiding in Jesus are blameless and upright in the sight of God because they are blameless and upright - both forensically (imputed righteousness) and intrinsically (imparted righteousness). Do you agree?

No, I don't think I agree.

I believe our standing before God is based solely on imputed righteousness. Our imparted righteousness, though faultless to non-divine eyes, is still tainted by corruption.

God sees me as blameless and upright because Christ's character stands in place of mine.


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
Re: What does "Blameless" and "Upright" before God mean...? [Re: asygo] #98005
04/09/08 05:53 PM
04/09/08 05:53 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
You mean that when God looks at you, He doesn't really see you? Instead He sees Jesus?


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: What does "Blameless" and "Upright" before God mean...? [Re: Mountain Man] #98012
04/09/08 08:15 PM
04/09/08 08:15 PM
V
vastergotland  Offline
Active Member 2011
3500+ Member
Joined: May 2002
Posts: 3,965
Sweden
 Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
 Originally Posted By: västergötland
People who are abiding in Jesus are blameless and upright before God because He is blameless and upright.

Thomas, do you apply this to sanctification (imparted righteousness), too? Or, does it only apply to justification (imputed righteousness)? Are people who are abiding in Jesus only blameless and upright in the legally declared sense; or, are they blameless and upright in reality?
Not sure here, is there such a clear cut difference between justification and sanctification? Are either of those defined in relation to sin? Is not justification a word that describes a person who has been made right with God, through Jesus? Is not sanctification a word that describes a person who is starting to grow in the fruit of the Spirit?


Galatians 2
21 I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.

It is so hazardous to take here a little and there a little. If you put the right little's together you can make the bible teach anything you wish. //Graham Maxwell
Re: What does "Blameless" and "Upright" before God mean...? [Re: Tom] #98037
04/10/08 03:13 AM
04/10/08 03:13 AM
asygo  Offline
SDA
Active Member 2023

5500+ Member
Joined: Feb 2006
Posts: 5,607
California, USA
 Originally Posted By: Tom Ewall
You mean that when God looks at you, He doesn't really see you? Instead He sees Jesus?

When God looks at me, assuming I have been faithfully performing righteousnesses, He sees filthy rags. (If I've been unfaithful, it's worse than filthy rags.)

However, if it has been in my heart to obey, Jesus' righteousness makes up for unavoidable deficiencies. Therefore, as Judge, God sees Christ's character instead of mine, Christ's merits instead of mine, because I am in Christ.

Now, if I choose to stop being in Christ, to stop abiding in Him, then there is no hilasterion for me.


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
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