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Re: To whom or what did Jesus "pay the price" for our redemption?
[Re: Tom]
#98172
04/14/08 03:27 PM
04/14/08 03:27 PM
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OP
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MM: You have yet to prove she said God was willing to pardon and reinstate him after he was guilty of sinning without making it conditional upon him accepting the atoning, substitutionary death of Jesus, without making it dependent upon Jesus paying his sin debt of death.
TE: 1.That Lucifer was guilty of sinning is clear because: a)He was given the opportunity to confess his sin. b)God offered to pardon Him.
2.That EGW said that Christ did not have to die is evident by the fact that she did not say that Christ had to die. He was shown that if he continued to pursue his course it would be a sin. Up to that point he was not guilty of sinning. He was convinced it would be a sin to continue his course, but pride forbade him to give it up. He sinned the instant he chose not to abandon his course. He was guilty of committing the unpardonable sin the moment he sinned. His first sin was the unpardonable sin. Given his background, knowledge, and relationship to God it could be no other way. That's why Sister White wrote there was no pardon or salvation for angels the instant they ventured to sin. MM: Based on this unbiblical theory (which you freely admit cannot be proven from the Bible), you go on to surmise, Jesus did not have to die for us to satisfy the legal demands of law and justice, that is, to give God the legal right to pardon and save penitent sinners.
TE: Whoa! The Bible doesn't discuss this. The Spirit of Prophecy does. I could just as well ask you to prove from Scripture that your ideas regarding God's treatment of Lucifer are Scriptural, and you could prove nothing about because it is not discussed. So this is a pointless request. The evidence we do have in the Bible makes it clear law and justice require death for sin. Nowhere in the Bible is your theory taught. The fact the biblical evidence supports the truth is evidence against your theory. MM: But all the quotes I have shared in my last few posts teach the exact opposite of your theory.
TE: Regarding unbiblical theories, I've been requesting for some time now that you produce something from Scripture which teaches that God cannot legally pardon without Christ's death, but you haven't produced any Scripture from statement which says this. In particular, if your theory were true, one would expect that Christ would have explained this meaning of His death. But where is such an idea to be found from Christ's teachings?
I've also brought to your attention that your theory is not historically viable. That is, the idea you are suggesting, that God could not legally pardon without Christ's death was not articulated before a certain time, probably the 16th century. So if this idea were true, why wouldn't someone have articulated it? I provided historical evidence to support the truth. It's just that you haven't acknowledged it as proof. I have also provided Biblical evidence to support the truth, but you haven't acknowledged it as proof. And yet you keep asking me to prove it from Jesus' words and the words of historians.
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Re: To whom or what did Jesus "pay the price" for our redemption?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#98173
04/14/08 03:29 PM
04/14/08 03:29 PM
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OP
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I am reposting this: Tom, in light of the following insights, I am having a hard time accepting your theory that Jesus had to die because we required it.
TE: What you've stated here is not very clear. Since you're referring to this as my theory, here's how I would express the idea. One of the reasons Jesus died was to accomplish our salvation. He died to "bring us to God," as Peter put it. Tom, it was you who wrote - "We required the sacrifice of Jesus' life in order to be saved." The way you state it makes me think you believe God would have been willing to save us in some other way except for the fact we required Him to die. What do you mean? Instead, these insights teach me law and justice required Jesus to pay the debt we owe, and the debt we owe is suffering and death proportionate to our sinfulness.
TE: I wouldn't say instead, but that this is simply expressing the same thought in different words. Are you saying we required Jesus to suffer and die in proportion to the sins of the world? When did we do this, when did we say this to God? If this is truly what we demanded, rather than law and justice demanding it, rather than God demanding it of Himself, why didn't Jesus fulfill the requirements? Jesus did not actually die the second death. Satan will die with our sins and second death in the lake of fire at the end of time. Jesus didn’t pay some other debt. He paid our debt in particular, as if He were a sinner paying the sinner’s debt in the lake of fire.
TE: I thought your idea was that these deaths were different. Now you're equating them? I actually agree with what your saying this time. There was no fire or flames when Jesus tasted and conquered our second death on the cross. Again, Satan, not Jesus, is the one who will suffer and die with our sins and second death in the lake of fire. That's why there were fames when Jesus died on the cross. That's why Jesus didn't remain in the grave. On the cross, Jesus earned the legal right to own our sin and second death. As the legal, rightful owner He will eliminate them in the lake of fire with Satan. He was engaged in paying the vast debt which man owed to God. The penalty must be exacted. The punishment has been endured by the sinner's substitute. He took the place of the transgressor, and suffered the penalty of justice that must fall upon him. Jesus suffered the extreme penalty of the law for our transgression, and justice was fully satisfied. Its demands have been met, its authority maintained. By paying our sin debt of death, Jesus removed a restraint from God’s love. His suffering and death allows the grace of God to act with unbounded efficiency.
TE: I agree a lot more with C. S. Lewis' explanation than yours. Do you agree Sister White's points? Each one of the following statements are taken from what she wrote in the quotes I posted above. Which one of these insights do you disagree with? 1. He was engaged in paying the vast debt which man owed to God. 2. The penalty must be exacted. 3. The punishment has been endured by the sinner's substitute. 4. He took the place of the transgressor, and suffered the penalty of justice that must fall upon him. 5 Jesus suffered the extreme penalty of the law for our transgression, and justice was fully satisfied. 6. Its demands have been met, its authority maintained. 7. By paying our sin debt of death, Jesus removed a restraint from God’s love. 8. His suffering and death allows the grace of God to act with unbounded efficiency. TE: Our whole problem is that we are not right with God. What needs to happen is that we be "brought to God," as Peter puts it. So God did what was necessary in order to accomplish this. No, our "whole problem" is not that we need to be "brought to God". Being brought to God solves part of our problem, but it doesn't solve all of our problems, nor does it solve all of His problems. There is the matter of law and justice requiring punishment and death proportionate to the sinfulness of sinners. To pardon and save sinners, a divine substitute is required to suffer and conquer the death sinners owe to law and justice. By tasting and conquering death, Jesus paid the vast debt sinners owe to God for breaking the law. Justice demands that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed. God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, met both these requirements. By dying in man's stead, Christ exhausted the penalty and provided a pardon. A plan was devised that the sentence of death should rest upon a Substitute. In the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood, for death must come in consequence of man's sin. In the slain victim, man sees the fulfillment of God's word, "Thou shalt surely die." TE: I still haven't seen you present anything from Jesus Christ in support of your ideas. Neither have you shown from the NT that Jesus said He was willing to pardon Lucifer's sins without paying his sin debt of death. Besides, you do not accept what Jesus says through His prophets as coming from His own mouth. Also, the fact Jesus paid our sin debt of death on the cross speaks louder than words. TE: Also I've repeated pointed out that historically your assertion is impossible, unless you are setting forth the idea that nobody understood why Christ had to die until centuries after His death. Who can you cite before Calvin that expressed the idea that Christ had to die to effect God's ability to legally pardon? If God could have pardoned sinners without Jesus having to pay their sin debt of death on the cross, He certainly would have done it. History clearly speaks to the fact Jesus had to die to pay the price to redeem sinners. No death, no redemption. Pre-historically, Jesus and the Father agreed, before creating FMAs, that Jesus would shed His blood to ransom them should they sin. They made it plain to A&E - you sin, you die. It is the law, a law not even God can rescind or disregard. The reason A&E did not die the instant they sinned is because Jesus paid their sin debt of death, thus releasing them from having to immediately pay it themselves. It provided the human race probationary time. It also gave God the legal right to pardon and save penitent sinners. Law and justice would not have given God permission to pardon and save penitent sinners if Jesus had not paid the sinners sin debt of death. This is evident from the fact Jesus had to suffer and conquer death on the cross. Otherwise, it would not have been required. God won back the allegiance and obedience of angels and mankind before Jesus suffered and died on the cross. Therefore, the primary reason Jesus had to suffer and die on the cross was not to prove God is loving and worthy of worship. He had already demonstrated these things before Jesus died on the cross. The main reason Jesus had to suffer and die on the cross was to pay our sin debt of death, to satisfy the just and loving demands of law and justice.
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Re: To whom or what did Jesus "pay the price" for our redemption?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#98174
04/14/08 03:29 PM
04/14/08 03:29 PM
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OP
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Tom, what do the following quotes mean to you? Please address the points she spells out. Thank you.
AG 139 Justice demands that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed. God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, met both these requirements. By dying in man's stead, Christ exhausted the penalty and provided a pardon. {AG 139.2}
1BC 1086 In the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood, for death must come in consequence of man's sin. The beasts for sacrificial offerings were to prefigure Christ. In the slain victim, man was to see the fulfillment for the time being of God's word, "Ye shall surely die" {1BC 1086.7}
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Re: To whom or what did Jesus "pay the price" for our redemption?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#98190
04/14/08 07:05 PM
04/14/08 07:05 PM
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Active Member 2012
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He was shown that if he continued to pursue his course it would be a sin. No, that's not what it says. It says the following: Satan had excited sympathy in his favor by representing that God had dealt unjustly with him in bestowing supreme honor upon Christ. Before he was sentenced to banishment from Heaven, his course was with convincing clearness shown to be wrong, and he was granted an opportunity to confess his sin, and submit to God's authority as just and righteous. (4SP 319) Satan was given a chance to "confess his sin." This cannot be construed to mean something that could have become sin had he continued in a course of action. Also she states that God offered to pardon Lucifer over and over again. Hence he had already been doing something wrong, or else he would not be in need of pardon. Up to that point he was not guilty of sinning. Not true! If he had not been sinning he would neither need pardon, nor would he have any sin to confess. He was convinced it would be a sin to continue his course, but pride forbade him to give it up. He sinned the instant he chose not to abandon his course. He was guilty of committing the unpardonable sin the moment he sinned. His first sin was the unpardonable sin. Given his background, knowledge, and relationship to God it could be no other way. That's why Sister White wrote there was no pardon or salvation for angels the instant they ventured to sin. I don't know how you can make such a thing up. It makes no sense, in addition to not matching the record. First we'll discuss how it doesn't match the record of what happened. She says that *before* he was banished from heaven, "he was granted an opportunity to confess his sin." Now if he was granted an opportunity to confess his sin, obviously it wasn't unpardonable. Furthermore she writes, Long was he retained in Heaven. Again and again he was offered pardon, on condition of repentance and submission. (GC 496) Note the conditions are the same as in the other quote. God would have restored Lucifer on condition of repentance and submission. He was given this opportunity "again and again." It's astounding that you would take statements from EGW which state that God offered to restore Lucifer "again and again" to a theory that not even once was God willing to pardon Lucifer. If it were simply a problem of your misquoting Ellen White, or having a pet theory, it wouldn't be such a big deal. The problem is what your theory says about God. Your theory would have God not allowing a creature of His an opportunity to repent for committing a single sin, and God simply is not like that. Instead we read that God gave Lucifer every opportunity to be pardoned and confess his sin, and that *is* what God is like. "Long was he retained from heaven." He was only kicked out when there was no more hope that he would repent and accept the pardon offered. He eventually, finally, after a long time, so hardened his heart that there was nothing further God could do. Before being banished from heaven, he was given yet another opportunity to repent. The evidence we do have in the Bible makes it clear law and justice require death for sin. Nowhere in the Bible is your theory taught. The fact the biblical evidence supports the truth is evidence against your theory. You're contradicting yourself here, because you've already agreed that my theory is supported by Scripture. My theory is that God did whatever was necessary in order to reunite man to Himself, and that the death of Christ was necessary for this to take place. I'm sure you agree with this. My theory is that the purpose of Christ's mission was the revelation of God, in order to set man right with God. You agree with this too, don't you? Christ exalted the character of God, attributing to him the praise, and giving to him the credit, of the whole purpose of his own mission on earth,--to set men right through the revelation of God.(ST 1/20/90) So not only is my theory supported by Scripture, but you've already admitted this. Regarding your theory, however, that God cannot legally pardon sin without the death of Christ, you have yet to demonstrate that Scripture states this anywhere. It doesn't. Now if you wish to assert that law and justice require death for sin, I don't have a problem with that, although I don't interpret this to mean the same thing you do. You are interpreting through the eyes of the system of 20th century Western justice, but that's not the system of justice that Scripture knows of. I provided historical evidence to support the truth. I don't recall this. I see you reposted something, so I'll take a look at that. I'm looking for something that some human wrote before Calvin stating that God could not legally pardon sin without the death of Christ. It's just that you haven't acknowledged it as proof. I have also provided Biblical evidence to support the truth, but you haven't acknowledged it as proof. I don't recall your presenting anything from Scripture which states that God obtained the legal right to pardon by the sacrifice of Christ. All you've produced, that I can recall, are statements saying that sacrifices were required, which proves nothing, since the whole question we are discussing is not *that* the sacrifices were required, but why. And yet you keep asking me to prove it from Jesus' words and the words of historians. I don't think you've produced anything from the words of Jesus, have you? What have you produced?
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: To whom or what did Jesus "pay the price" for our redemption?
[Re: Tom]
#98191
04/14/08 07:20 PM
04/14/08 07:20 PM
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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Tom, it was you who wrote - "We required the sacrifice of Jesus' life in order to be saved." The way you state it makes me think you believe God would have been willing to save us in some other way except for the fact we required Him to die. What do you mean? What post # of mine are you referring to? I'm sure I explained the meaning there. Please tell me the post #, and I'll copy and paste the meaning of what I said from that. Instead, these insights teach me law and justice required Jesus to pay the debt we owe, and the debt we owe is suffering and death proportionate to our sinfulness.
TE: I wouldn't say instead, but that this is simply expressing the same thought in different words.
Are you saying we required Jesus to suffer and die in proportion to the sins of the world? When did we do this, when did we say this to God?
If this is truly what we demanded, rather than law and justice demanding it, rather than God demanding it of Himself, why didn't Jesus fulfill the requirements? Jesus did not actually die the second death. Satan will die with our sins and second death in the lake of fire at the end of time. I don't understand your point here. You're evidently quoting from some post of mine. Why don't you quote what it is that I wrote that you're not understanding. I don't mean just a sentence or something like that, but a paragraph at least. Jesus didn’t pay some other debt. He paid our debt in particular, as if He were a sinner paying the sinner’s debt in the lake of fire.
TE: I thought your idea was that these deaths were different. Now you're equating them? I actually agree with what your saying this time.
There was no fire or flames when Jesus tasted and conquered our second death on the cross. Again, Satan, not Jesus, is the one who will suffer and die with our sins and second death in the lake of fire. That's why there were fames when Jesus died on the cross. That's why Jesus didn't remain in the grave. On the cross, Jesus earned the legal right to own our sin and second death. As the legal, rightful owner He will eliminate them in the lake of fire with Satan. I don't see any sense in any of this. "That's why there were flames when Jesus died on the cross"? You say Christ paid the price for our sins, right? Well, what is the price? The second death, isn't it? But you say Christ didn't experience the second death. So then He didn't pay the price. No, our "whole problem" is not that we need to be "brought to God". Being brought to God solves part of our problem, but it doesn't solve all of our problems, nor does it solve all of His problems. According to the SOP, the whole purpose of Christ's mission was the revelation of God, in order that man might be set right with Him. So that means it *was* the whole problem. Otherwise the "whole purpose" of Christ's mission was incomplete. There is the matter of law and justice requiring punishment and death proportionate to the sinfulness of sinners. To pardon and save sinners, a divine substitute is required to suffer and conquer the death sinners owe to law and justice. By tasting and conquering death, Jesus paid the vast debt sinners owe to God for breaking the law. This isn't a separate matter. Justice demands that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed. God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, met both these requirements. By dying in man's stead, Christ exhausted the penalty and provided a pardon. The pardon could not be provided without the penalty being exhausted. Not because God was unwilling to pardon, but because man would not have been interested. Fifield explains this point well: The life of Christ was not the price paid to the Father for our pardon; but that life was the price which the Father paid to so manifest his loving power as to bring us to that repentant attitude of mind where he could pardon us freely. (God is Love) A plan was devised that the sentence of death should rest upon a Substitute. In the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood, for death must come in consequence of man's sin. In the slain victim, man sees the fulfillment of God's word, "Thou shalt surely die." Right. In the slain victim, man sees the truth of God's declaration, that sin will surely result in death. Without the slain victim, that truth would not be seen. Without man's seeing the relationship between sin and death, he would not take hold of the proffered remedy. Before laying hold of the solution, we must understand the problem. No part of the system is arbitrary. It's not a matter of an arbitrary requirement of God needing to be satisfied so that He can legally pardon, but of the organic relationships between sin and death, obedience and life, being understood.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: To whom or what did Jesus "pay the price" for our redemption?
[Re: Tom]
#98192
04/14/08 07:28 PM
04/14/08 07:28 PM
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Active Member 2012
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Joined: Aug 2004
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Lawrence, Kansas
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Tom, what do the following quotes mean to you? Please address the points she spells out. Thank you.
AG 139 Justice demands that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed. God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, met both these requirements. By dying in man's stead, Christ exhausted the penalty and provided a pardon. {AG 139.2} I understand the first statement to mean the following, especially the last two sentences. Paul says, “Do we then make void the law through faith?” This is precisely what many modern theologians affirm. Such should hear Paul’s answer: “God forbid; yea, we establish the law” (through faith, understood).1 How is it we establish God’s law when we have faith in Christ? Let us ask another question, Why did God not pardon the sinner without the sacrifice of Christ? Was it because he did not love man sufficiently?---Ah, no! God is revealed through Jesus Christ. Christ says, “I and my Father are one.” At the crucifixion, both the expression of the divine love and the revelation of the world’s depths of defiant sin came to the climax. But even there Jesus, dying on the cross while the unrepentant world scoffed at its feet, poured forth his soul’s longings for man in these words, “Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do.”
Thus is revealed how God feels even toward an unrepentant world. He longs to forgive them. Why does he not do it?---Such an act would ignore his law and set it at naught, thus leading others to thoughtlessly violate it. But the violation of that law brings as an unavoidable result misery and death. No forgiveness that could not remove these would be worth having. A forgiveness that led more men into them would be a curse rather than a blessing. (God is Love) 1BC 1086 In the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood, for death must come in consequence of man's sin. The beasts for sacrificial offerings were to prefigure Christ. In the slain victim, man was to see the fulfillment for the time being of God's word, "Ye shall surely die" {1BC 1086.7} I commented on this in the previous post. Man must see the organic relationship between sin and death, as well as between obedience and life. Without the death of Christ, this would not be seen. Even angels did not understand this point: At the beginning of the great controversy, the angels did not understand this. Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin.(DA 764) MM, you claim to have answered my argument regarding historical evidence, but I don't see any answer. What human being before Calving articulated the idea that God could not legally pardon without the death of Christ? I'm sorry to make you repeat this, if you've said something. Perhaps you could reproduce the quote, or point me to your post where you addressed this. Also I'd be interested in any evidence that the concept of sacrifice meant something different to ancient cultures than what Paul expressed in Romans 12: I beseech you therefore, brethren, by the mercies of God, that ye present your bodies a living sacrifice, holy, acceptable unto God, which is your reasonable service. (Romans 12:1) David expressed the same concept here: 6For thou desirest not sacrifice; else would I give it: thou delightest not in burnt offering.
17The sacrifices of God are a broken spirit: a broken and a contrite heart, O God, thou wilt not despise. (Ps. 51) I don't know of your idea, that sacrifice was necessary before God could legally pardon, being present anywhere. Not just in Scripture, but anywhere at all, before the 16th century.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: To whom or what did Jesus "pay the price" for our redemption?
[Re: Tom]
#98221
04/15/08 03:21 PM
04/15/08 03:21 PM
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OP
SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
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Tom, we are never going to agree God's willingness to pardon and reinstate Lucifer before he rebelled openly is proof Jesus did not have to die to earn the legal right to pardon and save penitent sinners. Citing it again and again does not serve to prove it to me. Please do not refer to it as proof in the future as if you and I and everybody else agrees with it. Thank you.
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Re: To whom or what did Jesus "pay the price" for our redemption?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#98222
04/15/08 03:50 PM
04/15/08 03:50 PM
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OP
SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
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Nowhere is it taught that God gave in to our demands to die on the cross. Our great need did not cry out for God to suffer and die on the cross to make us believe He is worthy of worship. Man learned to love and trust God thousands of years before the cross. Jesus demonstrated the love and trustworthiness of God before He died on the cross.
Therefore, the primary reason why Jesus had to die on the cross was not to demonstrate that God is worthy of worship. Again, He made this plain before the cross. The main reason He had to die was to satisfy the just and loving demands of law and justice. Man sinned thus he must necessarily suffer and die in proportion to his sinfulness.
Jesus suffered in proportion to the sinfulness of the world. His agony and anguish is indescribable. In the end, though, He consumed and conquered our sin and second death. He did not succumb to the ravages of the second death. Instead, He became the lawful owner of it. Fire and flames were not part of His experience on the cross because Satan is the one who must suffer with our sins and die our second death in the lake of fire.
History reflects these truths beginning with the Godhead consenting to the plan of salvation. Throughout the Bible history repeats it over and over again. Off and on, over time, the Jews perverted the truth concerning the sacrificial system. Jesus set things in order by paying our sin debt of death on the cross. He also spoke through Paul to clear up the confusion. But the RCC went on to pervert the truth again. The Dark Ages ensued. Then, after the Great Disappointment in 1844, God raised up Sister White to restore the truth.
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Re: To whom or what did Jesus "pay the price" for our redemption?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#98223
04/15/08 04:03 PM
04/15/08 04:03 PM
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Nowhere is it taught that God gave in to our demands to die on the cross. Please quit doing this. I don't believe you do not understand I didn't mean this. I didn't say anything at all like this. Please quote what I actually said, or use some common sense if you're going to paraphrase something in your own words. Man learned to love and trust God thousands of years before the cross. Jesus demonstrated the love and trustworthiness of God before He died on the cross.
Therefore, the primary reason why Jesus had to die on the cross was not to demonstrate that God is worthy of worship. It's not clear what the "therefore" applies to, the sentence just before, or the one two before, or both. I'll assume it's both. First of all, that it's the primary reason hasn't been asserted. I simply asserted a reason. And the reason I gave was not, I don't believe, that God was worthy of worship. So you're using an argument which is invalid logically to disprove something I never asserted. The main reason He had to die was to satisfy the just and loving demands of law and justice. You keep asserting this, but offer no proof. Where did Jesus suggest this? Who, before Calvin said this? Where in Scripture does it say this? Fire and flames were not part of His experience on the cross because Satan is the one who must suffer with our sins and die our second death in the lake of fire. You're the only one I know who asserts this. I'm glad SDA's as a whole don't, because it would certainly give fodder to the erroneous argument of non-SDA's that SDA's believe that Satan is our sin-bearer. That certainly looks like what you are saying. History reflects these truths beginning with the Godhead consenting to the plan of salvation. Throughout the Bible history repeats it over and over again. Where? How about just once? I'm not asking for again and again. Where is one time that Scripture says that Christ died in order to give God the legal right to pardon? He also spoke through Paul to clear up the confusion. What confusion are you referring to? But the RCC went on to pervert the truth again. The Dark Ages ensued. This is just when Anslem wrote his theory, which you espouse. I agree with your point here. What you are espousing is a great example of what you say here. Then, after the Great Disappointment in 1844, God raised up Sister White to restore the truth. Continuing restoring the truth. The restoration neither began nor ended with her (although, she contributed a great deal).
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: To whom or what did Jesus "pay the price" for our redemption?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#98224
04/15/08 04:07 PM
04/15/08 04:07 PM
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OP
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Posts: 22,256
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AG 139 Justice demands that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed. God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, met both these requirements. By dying in man's stead, Christ exhausted the penalty and provided a pardon. {AG 139.2}
1BC 1086 In the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood, for death must come in consequence of man's sin. The beasts for sacrificial offerings were to prefigure Christ. In the slain victim, man was to see the fulfillment for the time being of God's word, "Ye shall surely die" {1BC 1086.7}
Tom, I'm sorry, but I still do not understand how you are interpreting the two quotes posted above. Please, in your own words, in plain and simple English, explain to me why Jesus had to suffer and die on the cross, and how it relates to the just and loving demands of law and justice. Thank you.
1. Why does justice demand that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed?
2. In what sense did God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, meet both these requirements?
3. How did dying in man's stead exhaust the penalty and provide a pardon?
4. Why is it that in the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood?
5. Why must death come in consequence of man's sin?
6. In what way did the beasts for sacrificial offerings prefigure Christ?
7. In the slain victim, man was to see the fulfillment for the time being of God's word, "Ye shall surely die". How did killing a lamb fulfill God's word?
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Here is the link to this week's Sabbath School Lesson Study and Discussion Material: Click Here
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