Tom, earlier in this thread the law of Moses was quoted where polygamy was commanded under certain circumstances. How do you explain this?

Given that polygamy was contrary to God's will, which He never sanctioned, clearly it was something He permitted.

It doesn't make sense that God would command that something contrary to His will, contrary to His law, a sin, something He never sanctioned a single time, be done. Therefore this idea must be rejected, if Ellen White's statement is to be accepted.

If God commanded polygamy be done, then He sanctioned it, by definition. In this case, Ellen White was wrong in her statement. It this what you're wanting to say?

If it's not, then God could not have been commanding polygamy be done, if Ellen White's statement is to be believed.

If you want to say that she's wrong, then your idea is possible.

Joshua
23:6 Be ye therefore very courageous to keep and to do all that is written in the book of the law of Moses, that ye turn not aside therefrom [to] the right hand or [to] the left;

1 Kings
2:1 Now the days of David drew nigh that he should die; and he charged Solomon his son, saying,
2:2 I go the way of all the earth: be thou strong therefore, and show thyself a man;
2:3 And keep the charge of the LORD thy God, to walk in his ways, to keep his statutes, and his commandments, and his judgments, and his testimonies, as it is written in the law of Moses, that thou mayest prosper in all that thou doest, and whithersoever thou turnest thyself:

PP 310
That the obligations of the Decalogue might be more fully understood and enforced, additional precepts were given, illustrating and applying the principles of the Ten Commandments. These laws were called judgments, both because they were framed in infinite wisdom and equity and because the magistrates were to give judgment according to them. Unlike the Ten Commandments, they were delivered privately to Moses, who was to communicate them to the people. {PP 310.1}

PP 311
These laws were to be recorded by Moses, and carefully treasured as the foundation of the national law, and, with the ten precepts which they were given to illustrate, the condition of the fulfillment of God's promises to Israel. {PP 311.3}

The message was now given them from Jehovah: "Behold, I send an Angel before thee, to keep thee in the way, and to bring thee into the place which I have prepared. Beware of Him, and obey His voice, provoke Him not; for He will not pardon your transgressions: for My name is in Him. But if thou shalt indeed obey His voice, and do all that I speak; then I will be an enemy unto thine enemies, and an adversary unto thine adversaries." During all the wanderings of Israel, Christ, in the pillar of cloud and of fire, was their Leader. While there were types pointing to a Saviour to come, there was also a present Saviour, who gave commands to Moses for the people, and who was set forth before them as the only channel of blessing. {PP 311.4}

PP 364
Moses was commanded to write, as God should bid him, judgments and laws giving minute instruction as to what was required. These directions relating to the duty of the people to God, to one another, and to the stranger were only the principles of the Ten Commandments amplified and given in a specific manner, that none need err. They were designed to guard the sacredness of the ten precepts engraved on the tables of stone. {PP 364.1}

It is clear God intended for the COI to obey the law of Moses. Therefore, her comment must apply to a specific context. Since it is plain that there were specific circumstances under which polygamy was "required", it stands to reason God never "sanctioned" polygamy under other circumstances.

God has not sanctioned polygamy in a single instance. It was contrary to his will.(1SP 94)

Tom, did you happen to notice the quotes I posted? What do they mean to you? We both agree polygamy is part of the law of Moses, right? Or, do you disagree it is part of the law of Moses?

TE: You yourself agreed that polygamy is a sin. God wouldn't command us to sin, would He?

MM: I also agreed there are certain circumstances where the law of Moses required polygamy. You believe God permitted polygamy, right? Well, is it a sin if God permits it?

TE: A while back I quoted to you from a *Jewish* website that God had not sanctioned polygamy, so the ambiguity is present even among Jews.

MM: I'm not comfortable with quoting modern day Jewish scholars to ascertain the truthfulness of what Moses wrote. Jewish scholars are famous for twisting the meaning of Moses to serve their silly, unbiblical customs.

So, we agree polygamy was required, under specific circumstances, in the law of Moses, right? Or do you believe it was optional? If so, then please support your theory with inspired explanations. Thank you.

By the way, quoting the "not sanctioned" SOP passage doesn't specifically address the law of Moses where polygamy was required under certain circumstances. We already agree there were instances of polygamy in the Bible that were not permitted by God.

God has not sanctioned polygamy in a single instance. It was contrary to his will.(1SP 94)

TE: You didn't answer my question, which is that God wouldn't command us to sin, would He?

MM: No, of course not.

TE: Secondly, there's a law which states that a woman's hand is to be cut off in certain circumstances if she gets involved in a fight. This is clearly something God permitted, as opposed to something which is an accordance with His will.

MM: No, it wasn't permitted, it was "commanded". For example, when Moses was uncertain what to do about the guy caught gathering sticks on the Sabbath, God commanded him to stone the guy to death. That was God's will.

TE: Polygamy is another example of something which is sin, but that God permitted. So, to answer your question, because God permits something does not mean it is not sin.

MM: Interesting. Not even a sin of ignorance?

I mean, why would someone suspect they are sinning if they are obeying the law of Moses?

Was Moses guilty of sinning when he obeyed God's command to stone the Sabbath-breaker to death?

MM: I mean, why would someone suspect they are sinning if they are obeying the law of Moses?

TE: Because they weren't obeying it. The Pharisees come to mind here.

MM: Was Moses guilty of sinning when he obeyed God's command to stone the Sabbath-breaker to death?

TE: Jesus said, "Let He who is without sin cast the first stone." Was Jesus sinning when He said this? Shouldn't He have obeyed the law of Moses, like the Pharisees thought?

What about the people who did obey the law of Moses? Were they guilty of sinning? For example, in the case of polygamy, were they guilty of sinning because they obeyed the law of Moses? Did God sanction the law of Moses? Or, did Moses misunderstand God and add things to the law that God did not sanction?

He did obey the law of Moses, right? He commanded them to stone her, which was in accordance with the law of Moses. So, what do you think? Was Moses guilty of sinning when he obeyed God's command to stone the Sabbath-breaker to death? Or, did Moses misunderstand God's instruction?