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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Tom]
#99554
05/23/08 01:06 PM
05/23/08 01:06 PM
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SDA Active Member 2021
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Joined: Apr 2008
Posts: 7,003
The Orient
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TE: Divorce was permitted, but it was an evil. It, and polygamy, did not cease to be evil because they were permitted.
GC: Nor did the eating of meat, nor killing, nor the use of wine cease to be evil because they were permitted. However, all three of these were not simply permitted--they were also commanded at times. As MountainMan has pointed out repeatedly through this discussion, polygamy was also commanded in certain circumstances. Genesis 38 has a fairly graphic portrayal of this type of polygamy. The ones whom God killed in this story were so punished because they wished only to enjoy the rewards of this polygamy without bearing the responsibilities of it.
I have sat out of this discussion for a time, and I marvel at the length of it without a conclusion. The fact is that the truth is progressive. What God allows due to our ignorance may change when we have become more fully aware of His requirements. Ellen White has written much that is not found in the Bible and which further defines the line between good and evil. Simply put, those lines were not always defined. This does not mean the line did not exist, but it does mean that God did not require us to abide by lines that were beyond our understanding.
It is my firm belief that what we look upon so harshly as sin today may not always have been counted as sin, even though it certainly always fell short of the glory of God. When Ellen White uses the word "sanctioned" in that passage which you have quoted, it is my belief that she meant to say that God never recommended, commended or advocated this. This does not mean, however, that it was not commanded. A captain in the army might never say that killing was a good thing, in spite of the fact that he commanded it of his troops. God never told David that killing was good, but He commanded and prospered him in his conquests of the heathen nations around him. In fact, God said that because he had been a man of blood, he was not permitted to build God's temple. Nonetheless, David had been obedient to God in killing Goliath and others.
Back to the crux of the issue: The Ten Commandments do not forbid polygamy. The seventh commandment forbids adultery. Adultery, by definition, means sexual relations with someone to whom you are NOT married. Marriage, then, legalizes this act--and there is no specification in the Ten Commandments regarding the number of times one may marry.
TE: When the woman caught in adultery was brought to Jesus, the law of Moses commanded that such be stoned. See how Jesus Christ handled the situation. This is God's ideal will.
GC: It was also God's ideal will that Moses obey Him as he was told. Had the stoning been forestalled or foregone with some kind words as Jesus did in the New Testament, Moses would have been sinning by breaking the express commandment of God. So, was Moses like Jesus? I would say yes. Jesus also obeyed His Father.
Blessings,
Green Cochoa.
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Green Cochoa]
#99560
05/23/08 02:42 PM
05/23/08 02:42 PM
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OP
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Thanks for your contribution GC! You're brining up very good points to discuss. I have sat out of this discussion for a time, and I marvel at the length of it without a conclusion. MM and I have a gift for this. (Rosangela's no slouch either) The fact is that the truth is progressive. What God allows due to our ignorance may change when we have become more fully aware of His requirements. I agree completely. Ellen White has written much that is not found in the Bible and which further defines the line between good and evil. I agree, with the caveat that I believe much of what EGW says actually can be found in Scripture, but many just don't see it there. However, there are certainly things she wrote which cannot be found in Scripture. Simply put, those lines were not always defined. This does not mean the line did not exist, but it does mean that God did not require us to abide by lines that were beyond our understanding. I agree completely with this as well. This is just common sense. However, sometimes people don't apply common sense to these situations, but there's no reason not to, and you've expressed the thought well here. It is my firm belief that what we look upon so harshly as sin today may not always have been counted as sin, even though it certainly always fell short of the glory of God. Lest you get a wrong idea, I've been speaking in logical terms, regarding a subject of interest. I don't have any special burden to speak against polygamy, nor would I view those who practice such any more negatively than any other sinner, including me, the chief of sinners. When Ellen White uses the word "sanctioned" in that passage which you have quoted, it is my belief that she meant to say that God never recommended, commended or advocated this. This does not mean, however, that it was not commanded. To sanction something is to put your stamp of approval on something. I can see permitting something to be done without sanctioning it. It's difficult to see how a command, if by command one means a direct order, like in the military "You must be polygamous!" would not be sanctioning it. In the EGW quote we see polygamy described as an evil, as contrary to God's will. How can God order someone to do something contrary to His will? That doesn't make sense to me. I can see God permitting someone to act out of harmony with His will, for the very reasons you pointed out. Especially in the OT, Jesus had not yet come, so there was much darkness and ignorance in relation to God's character. So I can readily see God's being gracious in His dealings with the COI and others, and permitting many things contrary to His will, but I don't see how God would insist that someone would be done contrary to His will. Say a person refused on moral grounds to do something which is immoral? Would God be displeased that someone refused to transgress His law, which is the very definition of morality? Or is the law changeable, and what is the moral thing varies from time to time? (e.g. based on what God is currently saying) A captain in the army might never say that killing was a good thing, in spite of the fact that he commanded it of his troops. God never told David that killing was good, but He commanded and prospered him in his conquests of the heathen nations around him. In fact, God said that because he had been a man of blood, he was not permitted to build God's temple. Nonetheless, David had been obedient to God in killing Goliath and others.
Back to the crux of the issue: The Ten Commandments do not forbid polygamy. The seventh commandment forbids adultery. Adultery, by definition, means sexual relations with someone to whom you are NOT married. Marriage, then, legalizes this act--and there is no specification in the Ten Commandments regarding the number of times one may marry. Is the legalization of the act something man does? Or something God does? Jesus said, "What God had put together, let no man tear asunder." Do the simply act of a human government pronouncing a couple to be married in fact constitute a relation that God has "put together"? If so, then are gays really married in the sight of God just because certain governments recognize these couples as being married? TE: When the woman caught in adultery was brought to Jesus, the law of Moses commanded that such be stoned. See how Jesus Christ handled the situation. This is God's ideal will.
GC: It was also God's ideal will that Moses obey Him as he was told. We can't have God's ideal will being contrary to His ideal will. Unless you think His ideal will varies depending upon circumstances, like in situation ethics. Had the stoning been forestalled or foregone with some kind words as Jesus did in the New Testament, Moses would have been sinning by breaking the express commandment of God. Why? Does this make sense? If Moses understood God's character as Jesus did, and revealed it in the same way that Jesus did, that would be sin? So sin does not depend upon what you actually think, say and do but on who you are? So, was Moses like Jesus? I would say yes. Jesus also obeyed His Father. There's a difference between Moses and Jesus. As John put is, the law came through Moses, but grace and truth have come to us through Jesus Christ. John also said, "No one has seen God at any time. His only Son, who knew Him best, has shown us what God is really like." (John 1:18). This is not to denigrate Moses in any way, but he simply did not know God as well as Jesus Christ did. It's not that God's ideal will changes, or what constitutes obedience to the moral law changes, but, as you pointed out, the understand of what constitutes morality changes. God, being gracious, accommodates man in his ignorance and hardness of heart. But morality doesn't change. As you pointed out, the line doesn't change. Man's comprehension of the line changes. Where does the line lie in reality? That's where Jesus Christ comes to the forefront. Not Moses or David or any other human being. We see the clear demonstration of the character of God in Jesus Christ. By Him morality is perfectly defined, and the ideal will of God is made known.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Tom]
#99573
05/23/08 04:44 PM
05/23/08 04:44 PM
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SDA Active Member 2021
5500+ Member
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Joined: Apr 2008
Posts: 7,003
The Orient
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As we seem to be agreed on the majority of my last post, let me now answer the latter portion of your post where you had questions. We can't have God's ideal will being contrary to His ideal will. Unless you think His ideal will varies depending upon circumstances, like in situation ethics.
If you choose to define your lines by "His ideal will", then I am inclined by that definition to accept situational ethics. I cannot believe that it is God's ideal will to destroy people in hell. But it will happen. And it will be His will. This term "ideal will" is a rather odd concept. You are basically, in using this term, addressing God's meta-cognition. That's a lofty ambition, and not one that I'm inclined to attempt myself. Had the stoning been forestalled or foregone with some kind words as Jesus did in the New Testament, Moses would have been sinning by breaking the express commandment of God. Why? Does this make sense? If Moses understood God's character as Jesus did, and revealed it in the same way that Jesus did, that would be sin? So sin does not depend upon what you actually think, say and do but on who you are? What you are saying Tom, if I have understood correctly, is that Moses should have treated the Sabbath-breaker as Jesus treated the prostitute caught in adultery. Is this correct? If this is your conclusion, then I must respectfully disagree. God told Abraham to sacrifice his son, and nothing short of the knife plunging toward Isaac's heart satisfied the Divine command. Should Abraham have reasoned that this was an un-Christlike act, and therefore abstained? Hardly! It was through his obedient act of faith that he entered Heaven's Hall of Fame. Moses, in like manner, was given a Divine command to stone the Sabbath-breaker. To disobey God is to sin. To argue against God is to place your own wisdom above His--which is foolish at best. God commanded Aaron not to grieve for his sons when God struck them dead--what kind of command was that? Yet we have no record of Aaron's disobedience on this point, and in spite of the seeming insensitivity of the command, faith is the better part of reason. So, was Moses like Jesus? I would say yes. Jesus also obeyed His Father. There's a difference between Moses and Jesus. As John put is, the law came through Moses, but grace and truth have come to us through Jesus Christ. John also said, "No one has seen God at any time. His only Son, who knew Him best, has shown us what God is really like." (John 1:18). That you should quote John in this manner to put a difference between Moses and Jesus is interesting, considering that Ellen White has made clear that the law is an image of Christ's character: "To abrogate the law of God is as impossible as it would be for God to abolish Himself. The law of God's kingdom is a transcript of His character." Jesus is not different from the law. Moses, in presenting the law, was presenting Christ and His character. (And of course, Moses did not speak his own thoughts, but by God's direction.) Blessings, Green Cochoa.
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Tom]
#99577
05/23/08 05:29 PM
05/23/08 05:29 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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TE: So clearly divorce was being permitted, since it says "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives," the operative word being "permitted."
MM: Are you associating what God permitted in the law of Moses with "Christ came to correct these evils" (quoted above)? If not, then do you agree that what God permitted in the law of Moses is not a sin, that He didn't permit people to do things that are sinful, that people are not guilty of sinning if they obey the law of Moses? Divorce was permitted, but it was an evil. It, and polygamy, did not cease to be evil because they were permitted. Regarding the stoning question, the same principle applies to this incident as to the other incidents you're asking about. It's no different. Because of the hardness of men's hearts, God permits certain things. To try to determine God's ideal will by studying the COI is hopeless. If you want to know God's will, look to Jesus Christ. When the woman caught in adultery was brought to Jesus, the law of Moses commanded that such be stoned. See how Jesus Christ handled the situation. This is God's ideal will. Tom, it is amazing to me that you believe the law of Moses permits people to do things that are evil and contrary to God''s will. That a person can be guilty of evildoing by obeying the law of Moses is amazing to me. It represents an oddity that God would risk being misunderstood by commanding Moses, when he inquired, to kill the Sabbath-breaker, instead of taking the opportunity to explain His ideal will. In the following passage nothing is said about God permitting evildoing in the law of Moses. Indeed, it says, "He had not set aside the law given through Moses..." Why didn't Sister White take this opportunity to explain that the law of Moses permits evildoing, permits things contrary to the will of God? He was soon interrupted. A group of Pharisees and scribes approached Him, dragging with them a terror-stricken woman, whom with hard, eager voices they accused of having violated the seventh commandment. Having pushed her into the presence of Jesus, they said to Him, with a hypocritical show of respect, "Moses in the law commanded us, that such should be stoned: but what sayest Thou?" {DA 460.4}
Their pretended reverence veiled a deep-laid plot for His ruin. They had seized upon this opportunity to secure His condemnation, thinking that whatever decision He might make, they would find occasion to accuse Him. Should He acquit the woman, He might be charged with despising the law of Moses. Should He declare her worthy of death, He could be accused to the Romans as one who was assuming authority that belonged only to them. {DA 460.5}
Jesus looked for a moment upon the scene,--the trembling victim in her shame, the hard-faced dignitaries, devoid of even human pity. His spirit of stainless purity shrank from the spectacle. Well He knew for what purpose this case had been brought to Him. He read the heart, and knew the character and life history of everyone in His presence. These would-be guardians of justice had themselves led their victim into sin, that they might lay a snare for Jesus. Giving no sign that He had heard their question, He stooped, and fixing His eyes upon the ground, began to write in the dust. {DA 461.1}
Impatient at His delay and apparent indifference, the accusers drew nearer, urging the matter upon His attention. But as their eyes, following those of Jesus, fell upon the pavement at His feet, their countenances changed. There, traced before them, were the guilty secrets of their own lives. The people, looking on, saw the sudden change of expression, and pressed forward to discover what it was that they were regarding with such astonishment and shame. {DA 461.2}
With all their professions of reverence for the law, these rabbis, in bringing the charge against the woman, were disregarding its provisions. It was the husband's duty to take action against her, and the guilty parties were to be punished equally. The action of the accusers was wholly unauthorized. Jesus, however, met them on their own ground. The law specified that in punishment by stoning, the witnesses in the case should be the first to cast a stone. Now rising, and fixing His eyes upon the plotting elders, Jesus said, "He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her." And stooping down, He continued writing on the ground. {DA 461.3}
He had not set aside the law given through Moses, nor infringed upon the authority of Rome. The accusers had been defeated. Now, their robe of pretended holiness torn from them, they stood, guilty and condemned, in the presence of Infinite Purity. They trembled lest the hidden iniquity of their lives should be laid open to the multitude; and one by one, with bowed heads and downcast eyes, they stole away, leaving their victim with the pitying Saviour. {DA 461.4}
Jesus arose, and looking at the woman said, "Woman, where are those thine accusers? hath no man condemned thee? She said, No man, Lord. And Jesus said unto her, Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more." {DA 461.5}
The woman had stood before Jesus, cowering with fear. His words, "He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone," had come to her as a death sentence. She dared not lift her eyes to the Saviour's face, but silently awaited her doom. In astonishment she saw her accusers depart speechless and confounded; then those words of hope fell upon her ear, "Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more." Her heart was melted, and she cast herself at the feet of Jesus, sobbing out her grateful love, and with bitter tears confessing her sins. {DA 462.1}
This was to her the beginning of a new life, a life of purity and peace, devoted to the service of God. In the uplifting of this fallen soul, Jesus performed a greater miracle than in healing the most grievous physical disease; He cured the spiritual malady which is unto death everlasting. This penitent woman became one of His most steadfast followers. With self-sacrificing love and devotion she repaid His forgiving mercy. {DA 462.2}
In His act of pardoning this woman and encouraging her to live a better life, the character of Jesus shines forth in the beauty of perfect righteousness. While He does not palliate sin, nor lessen the sense of guilt, He seeks not to condemn, but to save. The world had for this erring woman only contempt and scorn; but Jesus speaks words of comfort and hope. The Sinless One pities the weakness of the sinner, and reaches to her a helping hand. While the hypocritical Pharisees denounce, Jesus bids her, "Go, and sin no more." {DA 462.3} As Green Cochoa said, the law of Moses is a revelation of God's character, as such it allows for mercy and justice - two important traits of character.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#99592
05/24/08 02:16 AM
05/24/08 02:16 AM
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OP
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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If you choose to define your lines by "His ideal will", then I am inclined by that definition to accept situational ethics. I cannot believe that it is God's ideal will to destroy people in hell. But it will happen. And it will be His will. God has made it very clear that His will is that the wicked live, not that they be destroyed. God does not desire the destruction of any. "As I live, saith the Lord God, I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked; but that the wicked turn from his way and live. Turn ye, turn ye from your evil ways; for why will ye die?" Ezekiel 33:11.(COL 133) Why do you think that God's will is that the wicked be destroyed? God has demonstrated time and time again that this is not the case. Here's another example: 54And when his disciples James and John saw this, they said, Lord, wilt thou that we command fire to come down from heaven, and consume them, even as Elias did?
55But he turned, and rebuked them, and said, Ye know not what manner of spirit ye are of.
56For the Son of man is not come to destroy men's lives, but to save them. And they went to another village. (Luke 9) I'll cite just one more: 8How shall I give thee up, Ephraim? how shall I deliver thee, Israel? how shall I make thee as Admah? how shall I set thee as Zeboim? mine heart is turned within me, my repentings are kindled together.(Hosea 11:8) Well, I said one more, but I remember another: 9The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance. So it's very clear to see that God does not will for the unrighteous to be destroyed. This term "ideal will" is a rather odd concept. You are basically, in using this term, addressing God's meta-cognition. That's a lofty ambition, and not one that I'm inclined to attempt myself. It's not odd at all. It's simply a way to express what God wants vs. what He permits. For example, God permits anyone to choose to be lost, but His choice is that all be saved. What you are saying Tom, if I have understood correctly, is that Moses should have treated the Sabbath-breaker as Jesus treated the prostitute caught in adultery. Is this correct? No, not correct. What I said is that from Jesus' treatment of the adulteress, we see God's ideal will in terms of how she should be treated. In other words, if God Himself were present during the incident, we see in the actions of Jesus Christ how He Himself would have acted. Now if Moses, or any other human being, would have acted in the same way that God Himself would have acted, it's really difficult to see how this could be characterized as "sin." If this is your conclusion, then I must respectfully disagree. No, that wasn't my conclusion. God told Abraham to sacrifice his son, and nothing short of the knife plunging toward Isaac's heart satisfied the Divine command. Should Abraham have reasoned that this was an un-Christlike act, and therefore abstained? Hardly! It was through his obedient act of faith that he entered Heaven's Hall of Fame. Moses, in like manner, was given a Divine command to stone the Sabbath-breaker. To disobey God is to sin. To argue against God is to place your own wisdom above His--which is foolish at best. God commanded Aaron not to grieve for his sons when God struck them dead--what kind of command was that? Yet we have no record of Aaron's disobedience on this point, and in spite of the seeming insensitivity of the command, faith is the better part of reason. I think you're taking a dangerous course here. It is in Jesus Christ that we see what God is really like. You seem to be assuming that God can say anything at all, even things explicitly contrary to His law, or to His will, and we should simply do them, because it is God who is speaking. This way of thinking implies that God wishes that we obey simply on the basis of His authority, as opposed to our being convinced that His principles are correct. Given that the at the end of time Satan will be impersonating Christ, if God (or Christ) is capable of commanding us to do things contrary to His law, how do you propose to know who is speaking, Satan or Christ? But notice here that obedience is not a mere outward compliance, but the service of love. The law of God is an expression of His very nature; it is an embodiment of the great principle of love, and hence is the foundation of His government in heaven and earth.(FILB 93) The law of God is an expression of God's nature, which is "the service of love." How could God command us to do something contrary to His nature, contrary to "the service of love"? God does not desire mindless obedience. He desires that we obey Him because we are convinced of His character, that He is good, and that His law is good. God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes.(GC 541) A slavish obedience is one that obeys only because God speaks. This is not what God desires. He desires that He be loved and obeyed because He is worthy of love, because we have an intelligent appreciation of His character. Anyway, I'm drawn back to my questions of how it could possibly be sin to act in the same way God Himself would act in a given circumstance, to obey His law? That you should quote John in this manner to put a difference between Moses and Jesus is interesting, considering that Ellen White has made clear that the law is an image of Christ's character: "To abrogate the law of God is as impossible as it would be for God to abolish Himself. The law of God's kingdom is a transcript of His character." Jesus is not different from the law. Moses, in presenting the law, was presenting Christ and His character. (And of course, Moses did not speak his own thoughts, but by God's direction.) I'm not the one advocating that we should act contrary to the law! I'm saying that it is Christ who perfectly demonstrated what keeping the law looks like. If we act the way Christ did, we will obey the law. My point is simply that Christ is greater than Moses. The Light of this dark world had been shining amid its gloom, and they had failed to comprehend whence were its beams. They asked themselves why they had pursued a course that made it necessary for Christ to reprove them. They often repeated His conversations, and said, Why did we allow earthly considerations and the opposition of priests and rabbis to confuse our senses, so that we did not comprehend that a greater than Moses was among us, that One wiser than Solomon was instructing us? How dull were our ears! how feeble was our understanding!(DA 508) I simply state that if we wish to understand morality, which is to say obedience to the law, we should look first to Christ, not to Moses. A second point is that morality is not situational, is defined by the 10 Commandments, is perfectly demonstrated in the life of Jesus Christ.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Tom]
#99593
05/24/08 02:29 AM
05/24/08 02:29 AM
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OP
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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Tom, it is amazing to me that you believe the law of Moses permits people to do things that are evil and contrary to God''s will. It's even more amazing to me that you think God would command people to do things that are evil and contrary to God's will! That a person can be guilty of evildoing by obeying the law of Moses is amazing to me. That a person can be guilty of evildoing and acting contrary to God's will by obey a direct command of God is even more amazing to me! It represents an oddity that God would risk being misunderstood by commanding Moses, when he inquired, to kill the Sabbath-breaker, instead of taking the opportunity to explain His ideal will.
In the following passage nothing is said about God permitting evildoing in the law of Moses. Indeed, it says, "He had not set aside the law given through Moses..." Why didn't Sister White take this opportunity to explain that the law of Moses permits evildoing, permits things contrary to the will of God? Why didn't she take this opportunity to explain that the law of Moses commands evildoing, commands things contrary to the will of God? As Green Cochoa said, the law of Moses is a revelation of God's character, as such it allows for mercy and justice - two important traits of character. The law of Moses is not the revelation of God's character that Christ is. As John points out, through Moses came the law, but through Jesus Christ came grace and truth. Christ was misjudged by the Jews, because he did not dwell constantly on the law as written in the tables of stone. He invited men to learn of him, for he was a living representation of the law of God. (RH 1/7/90) Christ held the key to all the treasures of wisdom, and he could diffuse knowledge as no other one could. He was indeed more than a teacher come from God; he was the only-begotten Son of the Father, the one sent into the world to save those who should believe on him. (ST 11/23/91) Whatever great ideas man may have evolved, have come through Christ. Every precious gem of thought, every flash of the intellect, is revealed by the Light of the world. No human being, however learned, however gifted with talents, has precedence of the divine Teacher.
Christ makes no apology when he declares, "I am the Light of the world." He was, in life and teaching, the gospel, the foundation of all pure doctrine. Just as the sun compares with the lesser lights in the heavens, so did Christ, the source of all light, compare with the teachers of his day. He was before them all; and shining with the brightness of the sun, he diffused his penetrating, gladdening rays throughout the world. (9/16/97) If we wish to know truth, we must learn from the master teacher, through whom come "grace and truth."
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Tom]
#99598
05/24/08 05:16 AM
05/24/08 05:16 AM
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SDA Active Member 2021
5500+ Member
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Joined: Apr 2008
Posts: 7,003
The Orient
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If you choose to define your lines by "His ideal will", then I am inclined by that definition to accept situational ethics. I cannot believe that it is God's ideal will to destroy people in hell. But it will happen. And it will be His will. God has made it very clear that His will is that the wicked live, not that they be destroyed. Then why does God destroy them? Nadab and Abihu? Uzzah? Sodom? Hell? The Deluge? Are you saying that God acts in contradiction to His own will? God does not desire the destruction of any. "As I live, saith the Lord God, I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked; but that the wicked turn from his way and live. Turn ye, turn ye from your evil ways; for why will ye die?" Ezekiel 33:11.(COL 133) Why do you think that God's will is that the wicked be destroyed? Because I cannot believe that God would DO something that was against His will. I have faith that with God, there are no contradictions, and that He does not lie. God has demonstrated time and time again that this is not the case. Here's another example: 54And when his disciples James and John saw this, they said, Lord, wilt thou that we command fire to come down from heaven, and consume them, even as Elias did?
55But he turned, and rebuked them, and said, Ye know not what manner of spirit ye are of.
56For the Son of man is not come to destroy men's lives, but to save them. And they went to another village. (Luke 9) Who sent the fire that destroyed those 100 men in Elijah's day? I'll cite just one more: 8How shall I give thee up, Ephraim? how shall I deliver thee, Israel? how shall I make thee as Admah? how shall I set thee as Zeboim? mine heart is turned within me, my repentings are kindled together.(Hosea 11:8) Well, I said one more, but I remember another: 9The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance. So it's very clear to see that God does not will for the unrighteous to be destroyed. Here is basically the crux of our disagreement: the definition of "will." The word "will" can mean more than one thing. I think we may in the end agree if we can but understand this word. "Will" can mean "want" or "desire." It can also mean "ordain" or "choose." You have been looking at the former, while I have been pointing out the occasions for the latter. None of us here would say that God WANTS to destroy people. But He does ordain it. He must. His law of love is too strong to permit the sinners to live forever to their own misery. His law of love is too strong to permit them to hurt others without consequence. His justice will protect the righteous from those who choose to be His enemies. His law of love has given them the choice, and He respects that choice, even though they should choose the way of death. This term "ideal will" is a rather odd concept. You are basically, in using this term, addressing God's meta-cognition. That's a lofty ambition, and not one that I'm inclined to attempt myself. It's not odd at all. It's simply a way to express what God wants vs. what He permits. For example, God permits anyone to choose to be lost, but His choice is that all be saved. Alright, but did God merely "permit" the flood? hell? the death of Uzzah, Nadab, & Abihu? I think you must accept that God ordained these things. Nadab did not strike himself dead; God acted proactively to cause it. What you are saying Tom, if I have understood correctly, is that Moses should have treated the Sabbath-breaker as Jesus treated the prostitute caught in adultery. Is this correct? No, not correct. What I said is that from Jesus' treatment of the adulteress, we see God's ideal will in terms of how she should be treated. In other words, if God Himself were present during the incident, we see in the actions of Jesus Christ how He Himself would have acted. Now if Moses, or any other human being, would have acted in the same way that God Himself would have acted, it's really difficult to see how this could be characterized as "sin." God Himself would have acted as Moses did, for it was God Himself who told Moses to do it. Why do you not ask Moses about the time that "Moses" acted as "Christ" and "Christ" acted as you see "Moses" having acted? I refer to the time that God told Moses to stand aside so that He could destroy the Israelites. Moses saved them by his own pleadings on their behalf. If this is your conclusion, then I must respectfully disagree. No, that wasn't my conclusion. Then I have somehow failed to understand your logic. It seems illogical to me that Moses could have both stoned the Sabbath-breaker in obedience to God, and dispersed the crowd who would stone him as Christ did in the New Testament, since you seem to be saying that it is both un-Christlike to stone him and un-Christlike to disobey God's command. God told Abraham to sacrifice his son, and nothing short of the knife plunging toward Isaac's heart satisfied the Divine command. Should Abraham have reasoned that this was an un-Christlike act, and therefore abstained? Hardly! It was through his obedient act of faith that he entered Heaven's Hall of Fame. Moses, in like manner, was given a Divine command to stone the Sabbath-breaker. To disobey God is to sin. To argue against God is to place your own wisdom above His--which is foolish at best. God commanded Aaron not to grieve for his sons when God struck them dead--what kind of command was that? Yet we have no record of Aaron's disobedience on this point, and in spite of the seeming insensitivity of the command, faith is the better part of reason. I think you're taking a dangerous course here. It is in Jesus Christ that we see what God is really like. You seem to be assuming that God can say anything at all, even things explicitly contrary to His law, or to His will, and we should simply do them, because it is God who is speaking. This way of thinking implies that God wishes that we obey simply on the basis of His authority, as opposed to our being convinced that His principles are correct. If I believed that God would say "things explicitly contrary to His law," then I would not be believing in God. That is simply not an option, my friend! The fact that God DID say them, then, is final proof of the fact that He has expressed His will. If you are not convinced that His principles are correct, it is still far safer to obey Him simply on the basis of His authority, than to choose a different course because of your doubts about His wisdom. "Be not faithless, but believing." Given that the at the end of time Satan will be impersonating Christ, if God (or Christ) is capable of commanding us to do things contrary to His law, how do you propose to know who is speaking, Satan or Christ?
This must be accomplished in the same way that Abraham did--by continual communication with God so that you recognize His voice. "My sheep hear my voice..." I think the story of Abraham is given to teach us this very lesson of implicit trust in God, and that we must be able to recognize His voice. But notice here that obedience is not a mere outward compliance, but the service of love. The law of God is an expression of His very nature; it is an embodiment of the great principle of love, and hence is the foundation of His government in heaven and earth.(FILB 93) The law of God is an expression of God's nature, which is "the service of love." How could God command us to do something contrary to His nature, contrary to "the service of love"? God does not desire mindless obedience. He desires that we obey Him because we are convinced of His character, that He is good, and that His law is good. God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes.(GC 541) A slavish obedience is one that obeys only because God speaks. This is not what God desires. He desires that He be loved and obeyed because He is worthy of love, because we have an intelligent appreciation of His character. You are speaking truth here, but it only represents part of the picture. Of course God wants us to obey him because we love him. But in one of Jesus' parables, the concept of implicit obedience, whether we desired to obey or not, was also taught. The son who did what his father asked, even though he had first said he would not, was the one who had obeyed. I believe that if we ever exalt our own reasoning above a "thus saith the Lord," we are on shaky ground. If God gives a command, we are always safe to follow it without question--so long as we know His voice. God will never instruct us to do something expecting that we should reason it out in our own minds first, and possibly do something different than what He has asked.
We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Green Cochoa]
#99609
05/24/08 02:26 PM
05/24/08 02:26 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
20000+ Member
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
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Green Cochoa, I think you will discover in time that Tom's view of the wrath and vengeance of God is entirely different than anything you have heard before. Perhaps not. He does not believe God is proactive in punishing and destroying impenitent sinners. The examples you cited (Nadab and Abihu? Uzzah? Sodom? Hell? The Deluge?) are things that happened for reasons Tom believes quite differently than you or I.
In a nutshell, Tom believes when circumstances force God to withdraw His protection that Satan has permission to employ the forces of nature to kill sinners. He applies this principle to every example of death and destruction you read about in the Bible. He even interprets the following passage to reflect this idea:
GC 614 A single angel destroyed all the first-born of the Egyptians and filled the land with mourning. When David offended against God by numbering the people, one angel caused that terrible destruction by which his sin was punished. The same destructive power exercised by holy angels when God commands, will be exercised by evil angels when He permits. {GC 614.2}
He believes that the way holy angels cause death and destruction is by ceasing holding back the evil angels and giving them permission to do it. Of course it is true there are times when God and holy angels stand back and allow evil angels to employ various means and methods to cause death and destruction. But it is not true that this accounts for all the examples of death and destruction in the Bible.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#99610
05/24/08 02:34 PM
05/24/08 02:34 PM
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SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
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Tom, lest this thread become derailed, let me say - We both agree that the law of Moses permits men to have more than one wife at the same time under certain circumstances.
The difference between us is that you believe people who act in accordance with the law of Moses are ignorantly guilty of sinning, ignorantly guilty of evildoing.
Also, please answer the question - Was Moses guilty of sinning, guilty of evildoing, when he obeyed God's command to stone the Sabbath-breaker to death? You have artfully avoided answering this question plainly. You have danced around it without actually answering the question. Please do so.
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Re: Does polygame violate the 7th commandment?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#99627
05/25/08 03:12 AM
05/25/08 03:12 AM
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OP
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Here is basically the crux of our disagreement: the definition of "will." The word "will" can mean more than one thing. I think we may in the end agree if we can but understand this word. "Will" can mean "want" or "desire." It can also mean "ordain" or "choose." You have been looking at the former, while I have been pointing out the occasions for the latter. None of us here would say that God WANTS to destroy people. But He does ordain it. He must. His law of love is too strong to permit the sinners to live forever to their own misery. His law of love is too strong to permit them to hurt others without consequence. His justice will protect the righteous from those who choose to be His enemies. His law of love has given them the choice, and He respects that choice, even though they should choose the way of death. I'm skipping to this part, as I think it covers what you wrote previous to this. In regards to what you wrote here, I agree, although I think there may be a bit of difference in what we mean by certain phrases. Specifically I'll comment on the following portion: None of us here would say that God WANTS to destroy people. But He does ordain it. He must. His law of love is too strong to permit the sinners to live forever to their own misery. His law of love is too strong to permit them to hurt others without consequence. The first sentence I agree with completely. The second one I would say "permit" as opposed to "ordain." I cite the following: The Jews had forged their own fetters; they had filled for themselves the cup of vengeance. In the utter destruction that befell them as a nation, and in all the woes that followed them in their dispersion, they were but reaping the harvest which their own hands had sown. Says the prophet: "O Israel, thou hast destroyed thyself;" "for thou hast fallen by thine iniquity." Hosea 13:9; 14:1. Their sufferings are often represented as a punishment visited upon them by the direct decree of God. It is thus that the great deceiver seeks to conceal his own work. By stubborn rejection of divine love and mercy, the Jews had caused the protection of God to be withdrawn from them, and Satan was permitted to rule them according to his will. The horrible cruelties enacted in the destruction of Jerusalem are a demonstration of Satan's vindictive power over those who yield to his control. Regarding the fourth: His law of love is too strong to permit the sinners to live forever to their own misery. I would put it this way: "His love is too strong to continue the existence of sinners forever when that could only mean continuing their misery." People do not have life in themselves. God must give people life for them to live. On top of that, sin leads to death. So for a person to live forever, God would have to continue giving them life, and also not permit them to suffer the results of their sin, which is death. Alright, but did God merely "permit" the flood? hell? the death of Uzzah, Nadab, & Abihu? I think you must accept that God ordained these things. Nadab did not strike himself dead; God acted proactively to cause it. This seems quite a bit off topic. I'll just make the quick observation that Scripture often presents God as doing that which He permits. For example, Scripture says that "God kills Saul." That would appear to mean that God is acting "proactively." However, the true meaning is that God permitted it to happen. God Himself would have acted as Moses did, for it was God Himself who told Moses to do it. Why do you not ask Moses about the time that "Moses" acted as "Christ" and "Christ" acted as you see "Moses" having acted? I refer to the time that God told Moses to stand aside so that He could destroy the Israelites. Moses saved them by his own pleadings on their behalf. God Himself would have acted as God Himself actually acted. The best proof of how God would act is how Jesus Christ acted. He is the light of God. It was His job to reveal God. So completely did He do so that He said, "When you've seen Me, you've seen the Father." Regarding the time that Moses pled for God's people, surely you agree that it was God's will that Moses do so. God did not really wish to destroy the Israelites. As noted before: God does not desire the destruction of any.(COL 133) So Moses, in pleading for Israel, was not asking God to do something He wasn't already disposed to do. Then I have somehow failed to understand your logic. It seems illogical to me that Moses could have both stoned the Sabbath-breaker in obedience to God, and dispersed the crowd who would stone him as Christ did in the New Testament, since you seem to be saying that it is both un-Christlike to stone him and un-Christlike to disobey God's command. I made no comment in regards to the behavior of Moses. I simply commented on the behavior of Christ. I said that if we wish to know God's ideal will, we should look to Christ. If I believed that God would say "things explicitly contrary to His law," then I would not be believing in God. We are told that polygamy is sin, and contrary to God's will. Since sin is defined as transgression of the law, if God commanded it, then He commanded something contrary to His will and contrary to His law. I apologize if I misunderstood you, but I understood you to be saying that God commanded polygamy. That is simply not an option, my friend! The fact that God DID say them, then, is final proof of the fact that He has expressed His will. If you are not convinced that His principles are correct, it is still far safer to obey Him simply on the basis of His authority, than to choose a different course because of your doubts about His wisdom. "Be not faithless, but believing." If one is confused regarding the principles involved, how does one know who one is following? To know that it is God speaking and not Satan impersonating him, one needs to know God's character and His principles. This must be accomplished in the same way that Abraham did--by continual communication with God so that you recognize His voice. "My sheep hear my voice..." I think the story of Abraham is given to teach us this very lesson of implicit trust in God, and that we must be able to recognize His voice. I don't see how one could possibly recognize God's voice without knowing His character or His principles. TE:A slavish obedience is one that obeys only because God speaks. This is not what God desires. He desires that He be loved and obeyed because He is worthy of love, because we have an intelligent appreciation of His character.
GC:You are speaking truth here, but it only represents part of the picture. Of course God wants us to obey him because we love him. That we obey God because we love Him wasn't the point I was making. That's involved, of course, but the point was that God desires that we obey Him because He is worthy of love, and because we have an intelligent appreciation of His character. Not on the basis of His authority, but on the basis of His character. His authority flows from His character. The only obedience acceptable to God is obedience that is 100% voluntary, obedience that flows from a heart utterly convinced of the rightness of God's ways. But in one of Jesus' parables, the concept of implicit obedience, whether we desired to obey or not, was also taught. The son who did what his father asked, even though he had first said he would not, was the one who had obeyed. I believe that if we ever exalt our own reasoning above a "thus saith the Lord," we are on shaky ground. A "thus saith the Lord" without understanding is exactly what a slavish obedience is. God does not desire a slavish obedience, but desires that we obey Him because we have an intelligent appreciation of His character. He wants us to do right not simply because He says so, but because we ourselves are convinced that it is right. If God gives a command, we are always safe to follow it without question--so long as we know His voice. God will never instruct us to do something expecting that we should reason it out in our own minds first, and possibly do something different than what He has asked. How is this different than slavish obedience? Either God expects us to use our reason in following Him or He doesn't. If He doesn't, then that is exactly what a slavish obedience is. A slave doesn't think, he just does what he's told. Jesus tells us: No longer do I call you servants, for a servant does not know what his master is doing; but I have called you friends, for all things that I heard from My Father I have made known to you.” (John 15:15) A friend is someone who acts in the best interests of his friend because he loves his friend, understands him, and knows what he wants. Jesus has told us "all things" so that we could follow Him by engaging our reason. He has no desire that we should disengage our reason in following Him. Indeed, any voice that one hears that suggests that reason should be turned off must be highly suspect.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Here is the link to this week's Sabbath School Lesson Study and Discussion Material: Click Here
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