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Re: What does it mean - The wrath and vengeance of "an offfended God"?
[Re: Tom]
#99953
06/14/08 10:27 PM
06/14/08 10:27 PM
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OP
SDA Charter Member Active Member 2019
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Satan "invented" sin and all its results? If this is true, why, then, must God work so hard to make sure Satan does not overstep His boundaries?
At any rate, of the hundreds of places in the Bible where it says God caused the death and destruction of sinners and structures – Who or what is responsible for causing them to happen?
In the case of Korah and the 250 that died:
1. To who or what do you attribute these judgments? Who or what caused A) the earth to open up and swallow Korah and his clan, and B) fire from the divine glory in the cloud above the tabernacle to flash forth and kill the 250?
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Re: What does it mean - The wrath and vengeance of "an offfended God"?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#99980
06/15/08 06:35 PM
06/15/08 06:35 PM
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Satan "invented" sin and all its results? Yes. Satan is the author of sin and all its results (DA 471). If this is true, why, then, must God work so hard to make sure Satan does not overstep His boundaries? It is true. If God set no limits upon Satan, he would kill everybody. Regarding your Korah question, I note in post 99474 I wrote Regarding #99464
1.I've already commented on Korah.
I also note post #99563 where I wrote: MM, I think the concepts I presented in the previous post can be applied to your questions here. There's over a thousand places in the Bible where violence is attributed to God. I don't see the point in going over these. If you wish to believe God acts violently to achieve His purposes, that's your prerogative. I've communicated what I believe previously.
There are 4 areas of discussion I can think of that we can discuss which are related to this question:
1.Christ's death. 2.The final destruction of the wicked. 3.The destruction of the wicked at Christ's second coming. 4.Other violent events in Scripture.
I know many people who agree with me in regards to how I see 1, 2, and 3. There are only a few people who agree with me regarding 4. Those who see 1, 2, or 3 differently than I do also see 4 differently. What I'm getting at that is that 1, 2, and 3 are stepping points to 4. As long as we disagree regarding 1, 2 and 3, there's no way we'll agree on 4.
So I think discussing 1, 2, and 3 is sufficient. I'd also direct you to post #99563.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: What does it mean - The wrath and vengeance of "an offfended God"?
[Re: Tom]
#99986
06/15/08 07:54 PM
06/15/08 07:54 PM
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TE: If God set no limits upon Satan, he would kill everybody.
MM: What would he accomplish by killing everyone? Also, if Satan invents the results of sinning, does God modify his results by setting limits on him? If so, doesn't this make them co-partners?
---
1.Christ's death. 2.The final destruction of the wicked. 3.The destruction of the wicked at Christ's second coming. 4.Other violent events in Scripture.
What do you believe regarding the above list? What caused Jesus to die on the cross? What will cause the wicked to die at the end of time? What will cause the wicked to die when Jesus returns?
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Re: What does it mean - The wrath and vengeance of "an offfended God"?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#99994
06/15/08 08:25 PM
06/15/08 08:25 PM
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TE: If God set no limits upon Satan, he would kill everybody.
MM: What would he accomplish by killing everyone? God's purpose is to save the human race. Satan would thwart God's purpose. Also, if Satan invents the results of sinning, does God modify his results by setting limits on him? If so, doesn't this make them co-partners? This is an interesting question because your concepts make it appear to me that you see God and Satan as co-partners (e.g., in the last plagues, you seem to think both Satan and God go about destroying). I see God and Satan as being polar opposites. God is good, and acts in accordance with the principles of His law, as exemplified by Jesus Christ. God is just like Jesus Christ, in whom we see the Father. Satan works according to different principles, including using force and violence to get his way. These principles are foreign to God's government, and Christ's life demonstrates such by His non-violence (anti-violence might be a better way of putting it). You've sort of put your finger on a difficulty that God has, one which Satan may have been trusting in as well. The quandary is that if God did not allow sin to have any consequences at all, then the fruits of sin would not be seen. That would lead people into thinking that sin was not such a bad thing (what Satan has been arguing). OTOH if God did not intervene at all, then the whole world would be quickly destroyed, as the world is dependent upon the grace of God for its existence. So God works in a way such that the principles of both His government and Satan's can be clearly seen. Regarding the point that Satan is the author of sin and all its results, you agree with this, don't you?
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: What does it mean - The wrath and vengeance of "an offfended God"?
[Re: Tom]
#99997
06/15/08 08:49 PM
06/15/08 08:49 PM
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TE: God's purpose is to save the human race. Satan would thwart God's purpose.
MM: Why, then, did God send a Flood and kill everyone?
---
TE: The quandary is that if God did not allow sin to have any consequences at all, then the fruits of sin would not be seen.
MM: So sin has consequences because God allows it?
---
TE: Regarding the point that Satan is the author of sin and all its results, you agree with this, don't you?
MM: Probably not in the same sense you do. Yes, Satan is the first one to sin. In this sense he is the author of sin. But the results of sinning are pretty much cause and effect (unless God chooses to intervene). Even if Satan were dead and gone, the results of sinning would go on happening. They are not dependent upon him or his existence. For example, if a thief decides to shoot someone, and God does not intervene, the bullet will enter the body and cause corresponding damage.
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Re: What does it mean - The wrath and vengeance of "an offfended God"?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#99998
06/15/08 08:53 PM
06/15/08 08:53 PM
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OP
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TE: (e.g., in the last plagues, you seem to think both Satan and God go about destroying).
MM: Not so. Satan is allowed to sit up the fierce passions of the wicked. Holy angels pour out the plagues.
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Re: What does it mean - The wrath and vengeance of "an offfended God"?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#100000
06/15/08 09:04 PM
06/15/08 09:04 PM
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Active Member 2012
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I'm talking about who is destroying people. In the end of time, Satan and God (according to your idea) will both be destroying people (unless you think Satan all of a sudden stops being like himself), so there will be no way of knowing, based on their actions, who is doing what. Actually, this isn't unique to the end of time. According to how you view things, you never have a way of knowing whether it is God or Satan who is destroying someone, do you?
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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Re: What does it mean - The wrath and vengeance of "an offfended God"?
[Re: Tom]
#100018
06/16/08 02:13 PM
06/16/08 02:13 PM
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Not so. Evil angels have control of the fierce passions of the wicked while holy angels pour out the 7LPs. The distinction is clear. Satan doesn't seek to destroy the wicked; instead, he employs them to hunt down and attempt to kill the righteous. When He leaves the sanctuary, darkness covers the inhabitants of the earth. In that fearful time the righteous must live in the sight of a holy God without an intercessor. The restraint which has been upon the wicked is removed, and Satan has entire control of the finally impenitent. God's long-suffering has ended. The world has rejected His mercy, despised His love, and trampled upon His law. The wicked have passed the boundary of their probation; the Spirit of God, persistently resisted, has been at last withdrawn. Unsheltered by divine grace, they have no protection from the wicked one. Satan will then plunge the inhabitants of the earth into one great, final trouble. As the angels of God cease to hold in check the fierce winds of human passion, all the elements of strife will be let loose. The whole world will be involved in ruin more terrible than that which came upon Jerusalem of old. {GC 614.1}
A single angel destroyed all the first-born of the Egyptians and filled the land with mourning. When David offended against God by numbering the people, one angel caused that terrible destruction by which his sin was punished. The same destructive power exercised by holy angels when God commands, will be exercised by evil angels when He permits. There are forces now ready, and only waiting the divine permission, to spread desolation everywhere. {GC 614.2}
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Re: What does it mean - The wrath and vengeance of "an offfended God"?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#100019
06/16/08 02:16 PM
06/16/08 02:16 PM
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OP
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TE: God's purpose is to save the human race. Satan would thwart God's purpose.
MM: Why, then, did God send a Flood and kill everyone?
---
TE: The quandary is that if God did not allow sin to have any consequences at all, then the fruits of sin would not be seen.
MM: So sin has consequences because God allows it?
---
TE: Regarding the point that Satan is the author of sin and all its results, you agree with this, don't you?
MM: Probably not in the same sense you do. Yes, Satan is the first one to sin. In this sense he is the author of sin. But the results of sinning are pretty much cause and effect (unless God chooses to intervene). Even if Satan were dead and gone, the results of sinning would go on happening. They are not dependent upon him or his existence. For example, if a thief decides to shoot someone, and God does not intervene, the bullet will enter the body and cause corresponding damage.
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Re: What does it mean - The wrath and vengeance of "an offfended God"?
[Re: Mountain Man]
#100063
06/18/08 12:26 AM
06/18/08 12:26 AM
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Active Member 2012
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
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TE: God's purpose is to save the human race. Satan would thwart God's purpose.
MM: Why, then, did God send a Flood and kill everyone? I don't understand why you are asking this question. Please explain. --- TE: The quandary is that if God did not allow sin to have any consequences at all, then the fruits of sin would not be seen.
MM: So sin has consequences because God allows it? Same question. Please explain your reasoning here. Short answer is "no." --- TE: Regarding the point that Satan is the author of sin and all its results, you agree with this, don't you?
MM: Probably not in the same sense you do. Yes, Satan is the first one to sin. In this sense he is the author of sin. But the results of sinning are pretty much cause and effect (unless God chooses to intervene). Even if Satan were dead and gone, the results of sinning would go on happening. They are not dependent upon him or his existence. For example, if a thief decides to shoot someone, and God does not intervene, the bullet will enter the body and cause corresponding damage. I'm simply restating EGW, who wrote that "Satan is the author of sin and all its results." How do you think I understand this? It seems like a pretty straight-forward statement to me.
Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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